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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Updated: Aug 07, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 36
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment
contains a reporting services point.

A group of users is responsible for creating custom reports. The custom reports will be published.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tools should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Report Builder
B. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
C. Microsoft Access 2010
D. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
E. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
70-243 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 37
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You create a report
named Report1. Report1 is used by multiple users.
Users report that it takes too long to load Report1.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to load Report1.
What should you do?
A. Enable caching for the report.
B. Decrease the Size of the ReportServer database.
C. Decrease the session timeout value for the Reports website.
D. Increase the size of the ReportServerTempDB database.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You are creating a
configuration item that contains application settings for Microsoft Office 2010.
You need to detect whether Office 2010 is installed before validating the configuration item.
What should you do?
A. Create a report to display all installed software.
B. Enable Use a custom script to detect this application.
C. Create a direct membership collection.
D. Create an automatic deployment rule.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Two weeks ago, you deployed a Windows Installer package named App1.
You need to remediate a registry value that applies only to the client computers that have App1 installed.
The solution must minimize network traffic.
What should you do?
A. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then create a new
application for Appl.
B. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then configure the

existing application for App1 to use the new Windows Installer package.
C. Create an application-based configuration item, configure a rule for an existential type, and then import
the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.
D. Create an application-based configuration item, configure the detection method to use the Windows
Installer product code of App1, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has
App1 installed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor compliance.
The company has a configuration baseline for each server that has the Web Server (IIS) server rote
installed.
A new corporate policy specifies that the maximum TCP window size for all of the Web servers must be
131,072 bytes.
You discover that the TCP window size is set in the following registry entry:
HKEY_LOCAL_
MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\HTTP\Parameters\MaxBytesPerSend
You need to generate an error message for all of the Web servers that do NOT comply with the corporate
policy.
What should you do?
A. Add a new configuration item that has a registry value setting type to the configuration baseline.
B. Create a query-based collection that contains all of the Web servers, and then initiate an inventory
collection.
C. Create a query that returns a list of all the Web servers, and then search the query results for the
registry value.
D. Add a new configuration item that has an Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase setting type to
the configuration baseline.
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012
Configuration Manager deployed.
You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named WebCI
A configuration baseline named WebBaseline that contains WebCI
A collection named WebServers that contains all of the Web servers on the test network.
You export the configuration baseline to Baseline.cab.
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand
Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the Web servers on the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click WebBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
C. Right-click WebCI, select Export, and then specify Baseline.cab as the export file.
D. Right-click WebBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type WebServers in the
Filter… box.

E. Right-click WebBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the WebServers collection.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 42
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)

70-243 dumps

The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-243 dumps

You plan to deploy servers to the perimeter network by using Configuration Manager. The operating
system for each server will be instated over the network. The installations will begin automatically, as soon
as each server starts for the first time.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of network traffic between the perimeter
network and the internal network during the installation of the operating systems.
What should you do?
A. Install a software update point on Server3.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
C. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server6.
D. Install a management point on Servers.
E. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
F. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
G. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
H. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
I. Install a management point on Server2
  70-243 vce
70-243 dumps

QUESTION 43
What can cause bitmapped, banded, or low-quality display printed maps?
A. high output resolution
B. High Output Image Quality (OIQ)
C. transparent symbology
D. TrueType fonts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
An ArcGIS user is working with a CAD polyline feature class. It is comprised of a Feature_Type field
containing water main features and a RefName field, which may contain a valve type or may be NULL.
How can tins user build a query to isolate Water Main features containing a valid valve type?
A. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” <> `Null’
B. “Feature_Type” = Water Mains AND “RefName” NOT Null
C. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” IS NOT Null
D. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” <> IS Null
70-243 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
How does a geodatabase topology ensure data integrity and maintain the spatial relationships between
features?
A. specifies a valid set of topological values for an attribute
B. groups records in a feature class, based on an attribute field
C. validates the features of a geodatabase against a set of topology rules
D. enforces referential integrity between a feature class and a related feature class
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
An ArcGIS user wants to automate a process in ModelBuilder to determine the number of points that are
located in polygons.
Which tool should be used for this process?
A. Point Distance geoprocessing tool
B. Spatial Join geoprocessing tool
C. Select by Attributes ArcMap tool
D. Intersect Points geoprocessing tool
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Given a layer called Counties with the following relevant attributes:
What is the correct WHERE clause syntax for Select by attributes tool that should be used to find all the
Counties with a population greater than 50000 and less than 100000 in state of Florida in year 2008?

A. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND < 100000) AND “Countries.STATE_NAME” = `Florida’
B. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2000” < 100000) AND “Counties.STATE_NAME” =
`Florida’
C. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2008” < 100000 AND “Counties.STATE” `Florida’)
D. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2008” < 100000) AND “Counties.STATE_NAME” =
`Florida’
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which coordinate system is appropriate for storing a worldwide scale dataset using measures of latitude
and longitude, while also allowing for the data to be easily projected for editing and analysis at a local
level?
A. Universal Transverse Mercator
B. Geographic
C. Geocentric
D. Projected
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
An ArcGIS user performed a spatial transformation to adjust a less accurate Dataset A to match with a
more accurate Dataset B. The Spatial Transformation tool reported a low root mean square error (RMS).
What does this indicate?
A. The transformation between the control points is consistent
B. Too many control points were selected
C. The accuracy of Dataset A is high
D. The accuracy of the output transformed dataset is high
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50 An ArcGIS user is working in the field collecting elevation values along a hiking trail. What must be done
when creating the trail feature class to store the elevation values?
A. set the tolerance to greater than .001
B. add a field called Elevation and make the geometry type Double
C. assign the feature class a projected coordinate system in units of meters
D. make the feature class z-enabled
70-243 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
An ArcGIS user has a single long line that is intersected by many other lines. The user wants to split the
long line at each intersection.
Which tool allows the user to perform this in a single step?
A. Split
B. Planarize Lines
C. Line Intersection
D. Trim
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
When starting an edit session in ArcMap the ArcGIS user is unable to locate the geodatabase feature
class in the Start Editing list.
Why does the layer fail to show up in the Start Editing list?
A. The data layer is set as unselectable in the Table of Contents
B. The data loaded in the map is from a read-only source
C. The data is in a different spatial reference than the data frame
D. A spatial index must first be built for the data
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Devices and Enterprise Apps
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 95

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  • Manage compliance and endpoint protection settings (15%)
  • Manage Configuration Manager clients (15%)
  • Manage inventory using Configuration Manager (12%)
  • Provision and manage mobile devices (12%)

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1.When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
70-695 exam 
Answer: D
2.When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D
3.If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
70-695 dumps 
Answer: D
4.Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B
5.What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
70-695 pdf 
Answer: B
6.When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL

E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C
7.What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer’s shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
70-695 vce 
Answer: D
8.When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D
9.Sam uses Adaptive Payments’ Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
“guest payment” (“guest checkout”): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender’s email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer’s credit card information in his site/application.
70-695 exam 
Answer: B,C
10.When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant’s PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant’s account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D
11.When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
70-695 dumps 
Answer: A
12.When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D
13.You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
70-695 pdf 
Answer: E,F
14.What does “authorization” mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer’s credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer’s consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer’s credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C
15.Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender’s PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver’s account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender’s bank to clear it first.
70-695 vce 
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Aug 05, 2017
Q&As: 934

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1.Which action best illustrates responsible team behaviour?
A.Logging every call.
B.Reporting security violations.
C.Sharing knowledge.
D.Taking more than your share of calls.
200-125 exam 
Answer:C
2.What is a best practice for establishing effective relationships with your customers?
A.Ensure that your customer understands the SLA.
B.Provide technical language guidance.
C.Show your customer sympathy.
D.Understand your customer business.
Answer:D
3.What is a best practice for helping an emotional caller?
A.Ask the customer to talk about their personal problems.
B.Help the customer focus on the Incident and resolution.
C.Maintain a professional approach according to the SLA.
D.Move the conversation carefully on to general issues within the company.
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Answer:B
4.Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A.Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B.Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C.Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.
D.Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer:A
5.When made by a customer, which comment, is most likely to indicate that a conflict is developing?
A.I am tired of my computer always being down.
B.I don’t understand what you mean.
C.I see what you are saying to me.
D.You need to slow down.
200-125 pdf 
Answer:A
6.What is a best practice when writing e-mail?
A.Use animation to emphasise your point.
B.Use different colours to improve readability.
C.Use emoticons to convey empathy.
D.Use standard headers and footers for consistency.
Answer:D
7.When is it most appropriate to escalate an Incident to a manager?
A.Escalate an Incident if the customer begins to complain.
B.Escalate an Incident the customer is emotional.
C.Escalate an Incident if the customer asks to speak to a manager.
D.Escalate an Incident if the Service Desk is short of staff.
200-125 vce 
Answer:C
8.What is the best reason for using proper grammar and spelling when documenting Incidents?
A.Not using proper grammar and spelling is sloppy.

B.Not using proper grammar and spelling will anger the customer.
C.Using proper grammar and spelling is professional.
D.Using proper grammar and spelling will impress your supervisor.
Answer:C
9.What is a best practice for handling phone calls?
A.Clear your desk of any clutter.
B.Show the customer sympathy.
C.Use a standard greeting.
D.Use formal titles when greeting customers.
200-125 exam 
Answer:C
10.Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A.The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B.The customer previous experience with the Service Desk.
C.The customer position in the business.
D.The level of support provided by the Service Desk.
Answer:B
11.Which process is concerned with the capture, structure, and reuse of solutions?
A.Call management.
B.Incident management.
C.Knowledge management.
D.Problem management.
200-125 dumps 
Answer:C
12.Which statement best characterises a friendly and supportive workplace?
A.Management encourages extensive overtime.
B.Team members help each other.
C.Team members work alone.
D.Team members work only their allotted hours.
Answer:B
13.What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A.Closed questions.
B.Open questions.
C.Technical questions.
D.Personal questions.
200-125 pdf 
Answer:B
14.Which of the following best describes your sales and marketing role within the Service Desk?
A.Log the opportunity so that it can be followed up on at a later date.
B.Recognise opportunities to increase business and know what to do with them.
C.Refer any business opportunities to the marketing department.
D.Stop trying to resolve the problem and concentrate on increasing the business.
Answer:B
15.What is the most important benefit of being empathetic towards your customers?
A.Your customers will know that you feel sorry for them.
B.Your customers will know that you can fix their problem for them.
C.Your customers will know that you understand how they feel.

D.Your customers will want to talk to you whenever they call.
200-125 vce 
Answer:C
16.What is a common metric used to measure Service Desk performance?
A.Abandon before answer (ABA)
B.Average time to respond (ATR)
C.Incident quality score (IQS)
D.Total faxes received (TFR)
Answer:A
17.Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?
A.Answer fewer inquiries.
B.Confront the issues that are causing stress.
C.Stop customers from venting.
D.Take time off work.
200-125 exam 
Answer:B
18.Which metric is used to measure the average amount of time that a customer waits before a call is
answered?
A.Abandon before answer.
B.Availability.
C.Average speed to answer.
D.First contact resolution.
Answer:C
19.What is the best description of an Incident?
A.An Incident is any call from a customer.
B.An Incident is a call routed by the ACD.
C.An Incident is a management statistic.
D.An Incident causes an interruption to normal service.
200-125 dumps 
Answer:D
20.What is the most important reason for maintaining legal compliance in the Service Desk?
A.Maintaining legal compliance prevents other teams seeing what the Service Desk does.
B.Maintaining legal compliance protects the organisation assets.
C.Maintaining legal compliance protects you from blame.
D.Maintaining legal compliance protects your managers.
Answer:B

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate – SAP HANA (Edition 2016 – SPS12)
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Total Questions: 240 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 03, 2017

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QUESTION: 40
Which of the following statements describes the use of a GROUP BY clause?
A. A GROUP BY clause returns a single row of information for each group of rows.
B. A GROUP BY clause automatically sorts the grouped result in ascendi ng order, if DESC
keyword is not defined.
C. A GROUP BY clause returns a single row of information for each group of rows, in
addition to all the rows.
D. A GROUP BY clause automatically sorts the grou ped result in descending order.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
You want to record the raw log data received in an array exposed as a public property. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Log_Writer_Mock B.
Zend_Log_Formatter_Xml C.
Zend_Log_Writer_Stream
D. Zend_Log_Formatter_Simple
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following are the methods that are used by Zend_Controller_Front? Each correct
answer represents a complete s olution. Choose all that apply.

A. dispatch()
B. objectsetControllerDirectory()
C. getInstance()
D. controller()
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following will NOT display the value of $debug_variable? Each correct answer
represents a complete s olution. Choose all that apply.
A. echo Zend_Debug::dump($debug_variable, ‘debug_variable’, false);
B. print(Zend_Debug::dump($debug_variable, ‘d ebug_variable’, true));
C. ob_start(); Zend_Debug::dump($debug_variable, ‘debug_variable’, false); ob_end_flush();
D. Zend_Debug::dump($debug_var iable, ‘debug_variable’, true);
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 44
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is used to implement a classic Two
Step View pattern that allows a user to wrap the application content within another view.
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Answer: Zend_Layout
QUESTION: 45
A table named employees is given below:

C_HANAIMP_12

Which of the following statements would return the employees names , in ascending order,
based on their last name and first name? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. select fname, lname from employees order by lname;
B. select fname, lname from employees order by lname desc;
C. select fname, lname from employees group by lname;
D. select fname, lname from employees order by lname asc;
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 46
Which of the following code snippets will you use to destroy a log if the variable $logger
contains the log record?
A. <php remove($logger);
B. <php $logger=null;
C. <php delete($logger);
D. <php $logger->null;
C_HANAIMP_12 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 47
Which of the following methods will you use to get the actual set language in Zend_Translate
class?
A. setLocale()
B. getList()
C. getLocale()
D. isAvailable()
Answer: C
QUESTION: 48
Which of the following joins will you use to display data that do not have an exact match in the
column?
A. Self join

B. Outer join
C. Equijoin
D. Non-equijoin
C_HANAIMP_12 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 49
Which of the following is the method that is used to check whether the v ersion required for
running the application exists or not?
A. $var = Zend_Version->compareVersion($version)
B. Zend_compareVersion($version)
C. Zend_Version::VERSION
D. Zend_Version::compareVersion($version)
Answer: D
QUESTION: 50
Which of the following classes wil l you use to store objects and values in the application
space?
A. zend_Db
B. Zend_Acl
C. Zend_Registry
D. Zend_Config
C_HANAIMP_12 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 51
Consider the following XML file:
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”ISO -8859-1″ ?>
<!DOCTYPE html
PUBLIC “-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN”
“http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1 -transitional.dtd”>
<html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml” xml:lang=”en” lang=”en”>
<head>
<title> SimpleXML Example</title>

</head>
<body>
<h1>
Please go <a href=”http://www.PassGuide.com”>http: //www.PassGuide.com</a>
<br/>
</h1>
</body>
</html>
Which of the following statements will display the HREF attribute on the anchor tag if the
SimpleXML object is $sxml?
A. $sxml->body->h1->a->href
B. $sxml->body->h1->a<href>
C. $sxml->body->h1->a[‘href’]
D. $sxml->h1->a->href
Answer: C
QUESTION: 52
Which of the following steps will you take to apply Zend_View? Each correct answer
represents a part of the s olution. Choose all that apply.
A. Transfer control of the display to the View Script.
B. Render the View.
C. Assign the variables to the View via a Controller Script.
D. Create an instance of the View.
C_HANAIMP_12 pdf Answer: B, C, D

C_HANAIMP_12

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: May 22, 2017
Q&As: 65
Exam Information: http://www.passitexams.com/210-250.html

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  • Network concepts
  • Security concepts
  • Cryptography
  • Host-based analysis
  • Security monitoring
  • Attack methods

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QUESTION 8
Where do you find the Mac OS X v.10.2 Connect To Server command?
A. System Preferences
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Finder/File/Connect To Server
E. Finder/Go/Connect To Server

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
What are the different types of user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Child
D. User
E. Limited
F. sudo
G. Windows Only

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
In Finder, how do you set individual user permissions and privileges, other than the standard user permissions? Choose two.
A. Finder/File/Show Info
B. Finder/View/Show Info
C. Command + I
D. Command + S
E. Favorites
F. Apple Menu/Options

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Under each user’s home folder, which folders are visible, contents and all, to every user? Choose all that apply.
A. Desktop
B. Library
C. Shared
D. Documents
E. Inbox
F. Outbox
G. Public
H. Sites

Correct Answer: GH
QUESTION 12
In Mac OS X v. 10.2 where are the fonts stored? Choose two.
A. Library/Fonts
B. Services/Fonts
C. Resources/Fonts
D. Applications/Utilities/Fonts
E. Home folder/Public/Fonts
F. Home folder/Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 13
How can you access the command line in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose all that apply.
A. Applications/Terminal
B. Applications/Darwin
C. Apple Menu/Command Line
D. During startup, hold down Command + S
E. At the Login window, type in >console
F. At the Login window, type in >local
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
What is the minimum amount of physical RAM you must have available to successfully install Mac OS X v.10.2?
A. 32MB
B. 64MB
C. 128MB
D. 312MB
E. 512MB

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Where are web pages stored on a local workstation so that they may be views by a remote client?
A. Home Folder
B. Outbox
C. Public
D. Shared
E. Sites

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
Which developer framework is for applications written to work only within Mac OS X?
A. Classic
B. Cocoa
C. Darwin
D. Java
E. Carbon

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the name of Apple’s web browser, only compatible with Jaguar?
A. Mozilla
B. OmniWeb
C. Safari
D. Camino
E. Finder

Correct Answer: C

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The CCNA ICND2 Study Guide, 3rd Edition covers 100 percent of all exam 200-105 dumps objectives. Leading networking authority Todd Lammle provides detailed explanations and clear instruction on IP data networks, switching and routing technologies, IPv4 and IPV6 addressing, troubleshooting, security, and more. Dozens of hands-on labs help you gain experience with important tasks, and expert examples and insights drawn from thirty years of networking bring real-world perspective to essential CCNA skills.

Exam Code: 200-105 
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 204
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html

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QUESTION 24
Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on a separate computer? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Attachment Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 25
Which status in BlackBerry Desktop Redirector indicates that redirection is functioning? (Choose one.)
A. Verifying forwarding address
B. Enabled
C. Running
D. Started
E. On

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 26
In which two of the following locations would a system administrator set an enterprise activation password? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device
B. The BlackBerry device user email clientThe BlackBerry device user? email client
C. The BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
D. The BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry Provisioning System
Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 27
When installing applications through BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what type of file should the application loader tool be looking for? (Choose one.)
A. .exe file
B. .arp file
C. .xml file
D. .alx file
E. .pgp file

Correct Answer: D

 
QUESTION 28
Which two of the following will clear the BlackBerry device calendar database for a user who is connecting to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. Using Advanced Options in the BlackBerry Desktop Manager backup and restore tool
B. Deleting the Desktop [CICAL] service book
C. Performing a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
D. Accessing Calendar > Options and typing RSET
E. Synchronizing with the email client

Correct Answer: AD

 

 
QUESTION 29
Which three of the following are valid synchronization translators in BlackBerry Desktop Manager 4.6?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Sage ACT!
C. ASCII Importer/Exporter
D. Gmail
E. Yahoo!

Correct Answer: ACE  200-105 dumps

 

 

QUESTION 30
When attempting to synchronize ACT! using BlackBerry Desktop Manager version 4.6, a BlackBerry device user repeatedly receives an error during the synchronization process. What is the cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The appropriate connector is not installed
B. ACT! is not a supported application for synchronization
C. The wrong version of BlackBerry Desktop Manager was installed
D. No Internet connection is present
E. The computer does not have a required Windows service pack installed for this operation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 31
The following error message appears on a BlackBerry device: Device Error 507 What could be the cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. An unsupported application has been installed
B. The BlackBerry device battery needs to be charged
C. The BlackBerry device is in an area with insufficient network coverage
D. There are currently no operating systems or applications installed
E. The BlackBerry device has been removed from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 32
Which of the following actions does the ill?command that can be sent from the BlackBerry Administration Service perform? (Choose one.)
A. Reset the password and disable the SIM card
B. Disable the SIM card and turn off the radio
C. Reset password and lock the BlackBerry device
D. Nuke BlackBerry device
E. Delete all BlackBerry device data and disable BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 33
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a status of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset of the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 34
Which two of the following are methods for activating a BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. On the BlackBerry device, the browser is launched and the user navigates to the organization wireless enterprise activation web page
B. The system administrator connects the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using a USB cable
C. The BlackBerry device user logs in to a mail client and sends an email message to the “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 BlackBerry BCP-221 Exam BlackBerry Enterprise Server with the subject Activation
D. Using a USB cable, the BlackBerry device is connected to the user workstation on the organizations network, and BlackBerry Desktop

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two of the following audio codec are supported by the Media application on BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Device Software 4.5 or higher? (Choose two.)
A. Ogg Vorbis
B. MP3
C. AAC+
D. Real Audio
E. TwinVQ
Correct Answer: BC

 

 

QUESTION 36
Which three of the following notification options are available in the Profiles application? (Choose three.)
A. Alert delay
B. Volume
C. Out of holster options
D. Number of vibrations
E. Outcall muting

Correct Answer: BCD

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New Updated Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-996 PDF DCUFD: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric

The 642-996 pdf provide anyone almost everything you simply must take ones Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFD) v5.0 Cisco Test questions. The particular Computer Technology Industry Association specifics are reviewed as well as that is generated by Professional Documentation Specialists who’re continually utilizing sector expertise to generate correct, and realistic. Our Product or service will help you go away examination with your try, and as well save your valuable time.

Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Updated: Apr 02, 2017
Q&As: 178

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the 642-996 pdf. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Describe the Design Methodology 6%
1.1 Describe developing business trends
1.2 Identify business requirements driving the Data Center design
1.3 Determine the requirements needed to create a Data Center solution
1.4 Describe the tools/process to characterize an existing Data Center
1.5 Describe the top down approach to network design

2.0 Describe Data Center Structure and Modularity 7%
2.1 Describe network architectures for the Data Center
2.1.a LAN
2.1.b SAN
2.2 Describe the Modular Approach in Network Design
2.3 Describe the data center core layer
2.4 Describe the data center aggregation layer
2.5 Describe the data center access layer
2.6 Identify Design Considerations for connectivity between Data Centers
2.7 Identify the environments that use a Cisco data center virtualization solution
2.8 Identify the migration plan from existing to new infrastructure

642-996 pdf

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 642-996 PDF Exam Q&As  

Question No : 11 When designing a data center environment with ECMP and IP routing between the data
center network segments, which design would be the most suitable?
A. Layer 3 data center core
B. Layer 3 data center core with Layer 2 extension
C. Layer 2 data center core
D. Layer 2 data center core with Layer 3 extension
Answer: A

 


Question No : 12 What is one required component to run FCoE?
A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
C. HBA
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D

 

Question No : 13 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate
platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade
Answer: A,B,C

 

Question No : 14 Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?
A. Cisco Adapter FEX is only supported on vSwitch.
B. Cisco Adapter FEX enables the server adapter to be logically partitioned into multiple
vNICs.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX does not provide architectural flexibility.
D. Cisco Adapter FEX increases the number of cables in the data center.
Answer: B

 


642-996 pdf Question No : 15  The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and
on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. Cisco ISO ISSU
D. HSRP
Answer: B

 

Question No : 16 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data
center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B

 

 

Question No : 17  Which three options does Cisco Data Mobility Manager provide? (Choose three.)
A. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during low traffic hours or minimize
interference
B. brings the need for multiple migration solutions
C. moves from a smaller logical unit number to a larger LUN
D. manages all capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
E. manages all capabilities from CLI
F. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during high traffic hours or maximize
interference
G. manages some capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
Answer: A,C,D

 

Question No : 18  Which three Cisco technologies or solutions are used during the virtualization design into
the data center access layer? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V switch
B. Cisco UCS pass-through switching with VM-FEX
C. Cisco Virtual Services Appliance
D. Cisco Adapter-FEX when using Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
E. Cisco Distributed Virtual Switch
F. Fibre Channel switch mode
Answer: A,B,D

 

Question No : 19  Which protocol is required in order for FabricPath to support switches or hosts that dual
attach through classical Ethernet?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. LISP
D. OTV
E. VSS
F. TRILL
Answer: B
Question No : 20  Which type of 40 Gigabit Ethernet optics should be used for interconnect when the number
of multimode fiber strands used should be kept as low as possible?
A. 40GBASE-SR4
B. 40GBASE-LR4-Lite
C. 40GBASE-SR-BiDi
D. 40GBASE-CR4
Answer: C

 

642-996 pdf Question No : 21 Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
F. iSCSI
Answer: F

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Guaranteed Full Microsoft Study Guide – Pass 70-410 PDF and Vce in the Latest Version

These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!

70-410 PDF

Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
Updated on: Feb 17, 2017
Exam Informationhttp://www.passitdump.com/70-410.html

 

Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers

70-410 PDF

  • Configure servers
  • Configure local storage

Configure server roles and features (15–20%)

  • Configure file and share access
  • Configure print and document services
  • Configure servers for remote management

Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)

  • Create and configure virtual machine settings
  • Create and configure virtual machine storage
  • reate and configure virtual networks

Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)

  • Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
  • Deploy and configure DNS service

Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)

  • Install domain controllers
  • Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
  • Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)

Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

  • Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
  • Configure security policies
  • Configure application restriction policies
  • Configure Windows Firewall

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?

70-410 PDF

A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

 

70-410 PDF: STUDY PLAN

70-410 PDF

Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.

Personally I’m going to stick together a personal rack at some point with the necessary 70-411 dumps hardware at home and I’m sure if you’re interested in becoming a Systems Specialist of any kind, the thought has crossed your mind as well.

Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.

The reason I chose to to pursue a track focusing on Server 2012 R2 is because it’s my favorite Microsoft server OS, mostly because I enjoy 70-411 vce.  At one point, I didn’t see much value in pursuing it any further. I still have the book, use it for reference at work because I still have a  70-411 pdf  system in production but all new servers I have deployed in the past 6 months.

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Microsoft certification 070-480 exam best training materials

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

NO.3 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D  200-101 dumps

 

NO.5 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

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070-480 exam

Exam Code: 070-480 exam
Exam Name: Microsoft (Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2017-01-26
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QUESTION 27
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service
(VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
QUESTION 28
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect: Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T
Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 29
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference: 300-207 dumps
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.

Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 30
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

Incorrect: Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 31
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom
Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot
Configuration Data file is missing some required information.

File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE.
You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
*
Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.

*
Error code 0x0000034 while booting. Resolution:
1.
Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.

2.
Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.

3.
Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.

4.
Click Repair your computer.

5.
Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.

6.
In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.

7.
Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR
and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT
and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.

Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options
QUESTION 32
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is backed up by using Windows Server Backup. The backup configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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