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3I0-012 exam

QUESTION 50
The exercise price in an option contract is:
A. The price of the underlying instrument at the time of the transaction
B. The price at which the transaction on the underlying instrument will be carried out if and when the option is exercised
C. The price the buyer of the option pays to the seller when entering into the options contract
D. The price at which the two counterparties can close-out their position

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
An `at-the-money’ option has:
A. Intrinsic value but no time value
B. Time value but no intrinsic value
C. Both time value and intrinsic value
D. Neither time value nor intrinsic value Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The vega of an option is:
A. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in interest rates
B. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in implied volatility
C. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the time to expiry
D. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the price of the underlying

Correct Answer: B  Reference:http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 53
An option is:
A. The right to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
B. The right to buy a commodity at a fixed price
C. The right but not the obligation to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
D. The right but not the obligation to buy a commodity at a fixed price

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
A put option is `out-of-the-money’ if:
A. Its strike price is higher than the current market price of the underlying commodity
B. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is higher than the strike price of the option
C. Its strike price is equal to the current market price of the underlying commodity
D. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is lower than the strike price of the option

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which of the following transactions would have the effect of lengthening the average duration of assets in the banking book?
A. buying futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
B. selling futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
C. buying put options on 30-year German Government bonds
D. buying a 3×6 forward rate agreement

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is a `duration gap’?
A. the average maturity of liabilities on a balance sheet
B. the difference between the duration of assets and liabilities
C. the difference between the duration of the longest-held and shortest-held liabilities on the balance sheet
D. the average maturity of the portfolio on the asset side of a balance sheet

Correct Answer: B  300-208 dumps

3I0-012 exam

QUESTION 57
Which statement about modern matched-maturity transfer pricing in banks is correct?
A. It is now a widely accepted standard that banks should use a single representative transfer price across the entire maturity spectrum.
B. Modern matched-maturity pricing systems include an additional liquidity surcharge that is specifically applied to more liquid short maturities.
C. Matched-maturity transfer prices should represent a weighted average cost of capital that incorporates the cost of equity into the cost of borrowed funds.
D. Modern matched-maturity systems differentiate transfer prices by the maturity of the commitment and also apply a marginal funding cost perspective.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Supervisors would generally consider interest rate risk exposure in the banking book excessive beginning at what level of losses given a +1- 200 bps market rate movement?
A. > 2% of 6 months forward earnings
B. > 20% of regulatory capital
C. <10% of regulatory capital
D. < 5% of 12 months forward earnings

Correct Answer: B  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html

QUESTION 59

Which one of the following statements is incorrect? Hedge accounting of an existing position no longer applies when:
A. the trader acquires additional exposure in the hedged item.
B. the hedging instrument is sold, terminated or exercised.
C. the hedged item is sold or settled.
D. a hedge fails the effectiveness test.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a function of asset and liability management (ALM)?
A. coordinated limit management of a financial institution’s credit portfolio
B. running a matched trading book
C. monitoring credit quality of assets and establishing a early warning system
D. managing the financial risk of the bank by protecting it from the adverse effects of changing interest rates

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 48
The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
E. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network.
The user was able to connect to the network resources yesterday.
You verify that the user’s computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the
computer’s IP address is 169.254.48.97.

You need to restore access to network resources. What should you do next?
A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.
B. Reset the user’s password on the server.
C. Check your router’s current routing tables.
D. Verify that the DHCP service is available.

Correct Answer: D     c_grcac_10 exam

QUESTION 50
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:
A. corp
B. com
C. nwtraders
D. exchange
E. mail

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTE
C. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 53
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D. ::1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1

D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: D  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
QUESTION 55
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
A. IDS
B. DNS Server
C. NAT Server

D. IPS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
The ipconfig command will:
A. Configure routers
B. Display a client’s address
C. Display a client’s broadcast mode
D. Configure DHCP clients
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which of these is an application layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP

Correct Answer: A  400-101 vce
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
QUESTION 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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NO.1 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table: One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Perform a page restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Answer: F

Explanation: 300-207 dumps
To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.

NO.2 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the VARBINARY data type.
B. Use the CAST function.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use the DATETIME data type.
E. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
F. Use a user-defined table type.
G. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
H. Use an appropriate collation.
I. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
J. Use the DATE data type.
Answer: C

 

NO.3 You have recently removed a SQL 2012 Database Engine instance from a computer running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Prior to the removal of the instance, you had configured
affinity so that the default instance used CPU 0 and 1 and the second instance used CPU 2 and 3. You want to ensure that the default instance can use all processors available to the host.
Which of the following commands would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = AUTO
B. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,4
C. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,1
D. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 2,3
Answer: A

 

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QUESTION 34
Which Cisco WSA is intended for deployment in organizations of more than 6000 users?
A. WSA S370
B. WSA S670
C. WSA S370-2RU
D. WSA S170
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA?
A. sh run scansafe server
B. sh run scansafe
C. sh run server
D. sh run server scansafe
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. SNMPv1
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv3
E. Syslog

F. SDEE
G. SMTP
Correct Answer: ABCFG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which four statements are correct regarding management access to a Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose four.)
A. The Telnet protocol is enabled by default
B. The Telnet protocol is disabled by default
C. HTTP is enabled by default
D. HTTP is disabled by default
E. SSH is enabled by default
F. SSH is disabled by default
G. HTTPS is enabled by default
H. HTTPS is disabled by default
Correct Answer: BDEG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two GUI options display users’ activity in Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Web Security Manager Identity Identity Name
B. Security Services Reporting
C. Reporting Users
D. Reporting Reports by User Location
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

300-207 dumps
QUESTION 39
The security team needs to limit the number of e-mails they receive from the Intellishield Alert Service. Which three parameters can they adjust to restrict alerts to specific product sets? (Choose three.)
A. Vendor
B. Chassis/Module
C. Device ID
D. Service Contract
E. Version/Release
F. Service Pack/Platform
Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
What three alert notification options are available in Cisco IntelliShield Alert Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Alert Summary as Text
B. Complete Alert as an HTML Attachment
C. Complete Alert as HTML
D. Complete Alert as RSS
E. Alert Summary as Plain Text
F. Alert Summary as MMS
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
With Cisco IDM, which rate limit option specifies the maximum bandwidth for rate-limited traffic?
A. protocol
B. rate
C. bandwidth
D. limit
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two benefits are provided by the dynamic dashboard in Cisco ASDM Version 5.2? (Choose two.)
A. It configures system polices for NAC devices.
B. It forwards traffic to destination devices.
C. It provides statistics for device health.
D. It replaces syslog, RADIUS, and TACACS+ servers.
E. It automatically detects Cisco security appliances to configure.
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server

E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which three search parameters are supported by the Email Security Monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Destination domain
B. Network owner
C. MAC address
D. Policy requirements
E. Internal sender IP address
F. Originating domain
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats?
A. the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert
B. IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts
C. the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database
D. the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal
E. the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A network engineer can assign IPS event action overrides to virtual sensors and configure which three modes? (Choose three.)
A. Anomaly detection operational mode
B. Inline TCP session tracking mode
C. Normalizer mode
D. Load-balancing mode
E. Inline and Promiscuous mixed mode
F. Fail-open and fail-close mode
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two practices are recommended for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Integrate sensors primarily on the more trusted side of the firewall (inside or DMZ interfaces).
B. Integrate sensors primarily on the less trusted side of the firewall (outside interfaces).
C. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths symmetrical.
D. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths asymmetrical.
E. Use NIPS only for small implementations.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service sensor sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service network sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using SPAN with promiscuous mode deployment? (Choose two.)
A. SPAN does not introduce latency to network traffic.
B. SPAN can perform granular scanning on captures of per-IP-address or per-port monitoring.
C. Promiscuous Mode can silently block traffic flows on the IDS.
D. SPAN can analyze network traffic from multiple points. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

What CLI command generated the output?
A. smtproutes
B. tophosts

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QUESTION 102
What statement is NOT correct based on the display output below? MDS1# show ivr vsan- topology active AFID SWITCH WWN Active Cfg. VSANS
1 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de * yes yes 202,205 1 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40 yes yes 205,298 Total: 2 entries in active IVR VSAN-Topology
Current Status: Inter-VSAN topology is ACTIVE Last activation time: Sat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
A. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de
B. VSAN 205 is the transit VSAN
C. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40
D. VSAN 298 and 202 are edge VSANs
E. IVR topology is activated onSat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
“SCSI LUN discovery” is triggered automatically when:
A. The switch has dual supervisors
B. A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
C. An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D. An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
E. A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
What term is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel Encoding?
A. D28.5
B. K28.5
C. 3b/4b
D. 8b/10b
E. idle

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
What is the correct configuration to place initiator ABC.iqn into VSANs 3 and 66 only?
A. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 66
B. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn no vsan 1 vsan 3 vsan 66
C. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan member vsan 3,66
D. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 vsan 66
E. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 – 66

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?
A. EPP
B. ELP
C. ESC
D. EFP
E. LSU

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. FCIA, IETF
B. SNIA, IETF
C. SNIA, T11
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. IETF, ANSI

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
Which non-disruptive method should be used to view the PLOGI of a FC host to a FC target on the same MDS switch?
A. Use an external FCanalyzer on the target port and debug tools on the host system
B. Run fcanalyzer local
C. Span the host port and the target port to a SD port and use a PAA or FC analyzer
D. Run debug plogi on both the Host interface and the storage interface
E. Span the host port and the target port to the mgmt interface and use Ethereal to analyze

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
In a DH-CHAP enabled port, what is required of a host before it can access the port?
A. An Enterprise license must be loaded on each host to authorize fabric access.
B. Dual HBA support must be configured to support security protocol
C. Host must be connected to an interface in the VSAN range of 100-199
D. Host must have a HBA installed that supports DH-CHAP protocol
E. Host must be running RADIUS or TACACS+ to support server authentication.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
B. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
C. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
D. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
E. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
What configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. enable fc targets dynamic
B. fc-target import iscsi
C. iscsi import target fc
D. iscsi target enable fc
E. iscsi virtual-target all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
The host attached to MDS-1 at site A needs to access the disk attached to MDS-2 at site B. MDS- 2 is part of a multi-switch fabric. The distance between the two sites is 600 km. What feature could stop fabric reconfiguration changes in site B from disrupting devices connected to MDS-1?
A. Switch to Switch authentication using Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
B. Inter-VSAN Routing
C. FCIP with Special Frame option
D. FCIP Write Acceleration
E. IP Access Lists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
B. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
C. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
D. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
B. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
C. Has no affect what so ever on the array
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Same level of redundancy as that of a Raid 1+0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
B. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
C. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
What ordered set is used to determine the Class of the frame?
A. SOF
B. LIP
C. TYP
D. SYN
E. COF

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FB
B. FF.FF.FE
C. FF.FF.FD
D. FF.FF.FC
E. FF.FF.FA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Inrange FC/9000
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Brocade 12000 core PIDmode 1
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

350-018 dumps

QUESTION 120
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. TCP port number, write-accelerator, compression ratio
B. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
C. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
D. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
E. Sack-enable, TCP port number, peer-info

Correct Answer: B

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We Practice The 2016 Latest Microsoft 70-417 Exam Questions And Answers

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070-410 exam

QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC5. DC5 has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall Active Directory from DC5 manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-ADComputercmdlet
B. The ntdsutil.exe command
C. The dsamain.exe command
D. The Remove-WindowsFeaturecmdlet

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?

A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon service creates a log file that contains all the locator resource records and places the log file in
the following location:

References:
QUESTION 98
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. New-VirtualDisk
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NOT A Share and Storage will only let you create a VHD on a storage pool NOT B Server Manager, can’t
find where to create this. NOT C Is this powershell ? the command should be NEW-VHD

D Computer management is the only valid yet non available answer. I’d be left with C, hoping they’d have
the good powershell command.
Note:
From @L_Ranger, Computer Management is not an option anymore.
Back to New-VirtualDisk
Old explanation : D (Computer management)
Explanation:
For Server 2012:
With the  Server Manager snap-in, you can create and attach a .VHD file directly. Figure A shows the drop-down box
where a.VHD file can be created and attached. Figure A
QUESTION 99
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are part of a workgroup.

On Server1 and Server2, you create a local user account named Admin1. You add the account to the local
Administrators group. On both servers, Admin1 has the same password.

You log on to Server1 as Admin1. You open Computer Management and you connect to Server2.

When you attempt to create a scheduled task, view the event logs, and manage the shared folders, you
receive Access Denied messages.
You need to ensure that you can administer Server2 remotely from Server1 by using Computer
Management. What should you configure on Server2?

A. From Local Users and Groups, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
B. From Server Manager, modify the Remote Management setting.
C. From Windows Firewall, modify the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) firewall rule.
D. From Registry Editor, configure the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicyresgistry value

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Server2, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Server2 to the contoso.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 by using the Computer Management console on Server1.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Run sconfig.exe and configure remote management.
B. Run sconfig.exe and configure Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install Windows Management Framework.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Windows Server 2012, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.
References:
QUESTION 101
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 5erver2 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1) and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You need to manage DHCP on Server2 by using the DHCP console on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. From the Microsoft Management Console on Server1, add a snap-in.
B. From Server Manager on Server2, enable Windows Remote Management.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server2, run Enable-PSRemoting.
D. From Server Manager on Server1, install a feature.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization

Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.
References:  Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter
7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335
QUESTION 103
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and corp.contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are configured as global catalog servers.
The corp.contoso.com domain contains a domain controller named DC1.
You need to disable the global catalog on DC1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
B. From Active Directory Administrative Center, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the properties of the corp.contoso.com domain.
D. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings of the DC1 server object.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When you navigate your way to the Active Directory Sites and Services\Sites\SiteName\Servers then in the details pane, right-click NTDS Settings of the selected server object, and then click Properties. There will you get access to the Global Catalog check box to add the global catalog, or clear the check box to remove the global catalog.
References:

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Most Popular Cisco 400-101 Vce, 400-101 Real Exam Online

400-101vce

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QUESTION 26
Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Software_Packaging_Architecture.html
QUESTION 27
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

400-101 vce
QUESTION 30
Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.

QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
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400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching – Cisco