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Microsoft 70-412 | Hot 70-412 PDF Download In PDF File

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QUESTION 27
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service
(VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
QUESTION 28
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect: Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T
Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 29
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference: 300-207 dumps
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.

Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 30
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

Incorrect: Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 31
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom
Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot
Configuration Data file is missing some required information.

File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE.
You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
*
Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.

*
Error code 0x0000034 while booting. Resolution:
1.
Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.

2.
Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.

3.
Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.

4.
Click Repair your computer.

5.
Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.

6.
In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.

7.
Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR
and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT
and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.

Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options
QUESTION 32
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is backed up by using Windows Server Backup. The backup configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
A. WEP is a moderately secure firewall for wireless devices.
B. WEP optimizes performance of 802.11 devices over distances, so they perform as well as their wired equivalents.
C. WEP represents the first attempt at designing an algorithm to protect wireless communication from eavesdropping.
D. WEP allows wireless access point administrators to require user names and passwords of users who want to connect to the wireless access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two (2) actions might a rootkit perform?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Monitor disk activity on the root volume.
B. Install security tools in root’s home directory.
C. Provide remote access to a computer by opening ports.
D. Hide its presence by installing modified versions of system commands
E. Provide a set of tools that allow the system administrator to monitor security events.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
________ is a command-line tool that displays the headers of packets seen by a computer’s network interface card.
A. arp
B. ping
C. netstat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 11
Which statement about SSH tunneling is FALSE?
A. SSH tunnels can support the PPP protocol.
B. SSH tunnels secure all IP traffic, including UDP and TCP.
C. SSH tunnels secure otherwise non-secure traffic, such as POP and AFP.
D. Forwarding port 1023 and below requires root privileges for the initial receiving port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Why might you prefer WPA Enterprise over WPA Personal?
A. You need 128-bit encryption.
B. You do not want to manage a RADIUS server.
C. You require more connections than WPA Personal allows
D. The security implications of WPA Personal’s shared key are not acceptable.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two (2) authentication mechanisms are available to SSH users?
(Choose TWO.)
A. public/private key pair
B. shared ssh_config files
C. user name and password
D. NTLM (NT LAN Manager)
E. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What does Stealth Mode on the Mac OS X Firewall do?
A. It disables the sending of denials to blocked packets.
B. It disables responses to all incoming connection attempts
C. It creates a NAT gateway to hide the true IP address of the computer.
D. It enables responses only to connection attempts from computers that are in the allowed computer list.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
If you see the password dialog shown above, which statement below MUST be true?
A. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry.
B. Mail needs to search a keychain for a relevant entry.
C. Mail is preparing to change the ACL for the keychain entry.
D. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry, but it was not accepted by the server.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two (2) steps to obtain a certificate from a third-party are essential for signing email?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Create a key pair.
B. Change the key size to 128 bits.
C. Store a key pair in your login keychain.
D. Generate a CSR (Certificate Signing Request).
E. Use Certificate Assistant to generate a CA (Certificate Authority).

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
The Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA) is ________.
A. a cryptographic services toolkit
B. a file system security infrastructure
C. a secure authentication method built into LDAP
D. a modular approach to networking and Internet services

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Updated 2017 Pass Microsoft 70-532 Dumps Free Download

70-532 Dumps

Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
70-532 Dumps Tests Detail:Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Skills Measured

This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
C. IIS logs70-532 dumps
D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps

F. Application logs
Answer: D,E

 

NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B  400-101 vce

 

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

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isco 100-105 certifications power new and useful professions. Cisco 100-105 Qualified Professionals spend shorter period interviewing and a longer period driving value. Including Cisco 100-105  pdf certification to your CV helps you take a position out and get hired—quicker. In some cases, certification has permitted choosing supervisors to complete roles 25% more quickly. What’s more, certified new employs are fully effective an entire month earlier than their uncertified colleagues. This level of efficiency makes your impact and skills clearly take a position out.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In Mail, where do you set email rules?
A. Mail/Preferences/
B. Mail/Preferences/Rules
C. Mail/Options/Rules
D. Mail/Rules
E. Mail/Signatures & Rules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What can you see about your drives and partitions using Apple System Profiler?
A. Number and size of partitions
B. Operating System
C. Users
D. root password
E. Number of folders

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When opening a new Terminal window, what is the default location?
A. /login
B. /usr
C. /usr/bin
D. /usr/login/bin
E. /usr/bin/login

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
What application was very dramatically changed with the release of Jaguar to include things like mapping, flight search information and language translations?
A. Finder
B. Help
C. AppleCare
D. Sherlock
E. AppleWorks
Correct Answer: D   200-120 exam

QUESTION 5
What Jaguar tool do you need to coordinate all the information on your iPod or PDA with your Mac?
A. iMatch
B. iSync
C. iPod sync
D. iTools
E. .mac
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

In Server Settings, under the Network tab, how do you disable a NetBoot disk image?
A. Click DHCP/NetBoot and pick Configure DHCP/NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
B. Click DHCP/NetBoot and click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
C. Click DHCP/NetBoot then pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
D. Click NetBoot then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
E. Click NetBoot and pick Configure NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What two applications can you use to find your Macintosh’s MAC address?
A. Network Utility
B. System Preferences
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Directory Setup
E. Apple System Profiler

Correct Answer: AE

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

200-120 exam
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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