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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As(2-40)
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a key benefit of purchasing a knowledge database?
A. It provides comprehensive information on proprietary applications
B. It is inexpensive to purchase
C. It provides comprehensive information on commonly used hardware and software
D. It is inexpensive to update
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which three are the most common type of network problems? (Choose three.)
A. Collisions, congestion, and delays
B. Segment or ring does not respond, traffic limited, no workaround
C. Systems will not reboot
D. Users cannot reach connected devices, i.e., PC, servers, workstations
QUESTION NO: 4
Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?
A. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)
B. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customer
C. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptable
D. They determine what level of support the customer is receiving
QUESTION NO: 5
What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications
B. Results in customers calling less frequently
C. Helps customers make better decisions
D. Improves quality and accuracy
400-351 dumps Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 6
You are working as a help desk analyst and receive a call from the network administrator informing you that a server is down. Which action should you perform first?
A. Inform the other help desk analysts
B. Troubleshoot the problem yourself
C. Call all customers that use the server
D. Wait for customers to call the help desk
QUESTION NO: 7
You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do is ?
A. Find someone else who can understand the customer better
B. Ask the customer is there is someone else in theirorganisation for you to talk to
C. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them
D. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding them
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
What are three key strengths of critical thinkers? (Choose three.)
A. They are logical
B. They are empathetic
C. They are analytical
D. They areorganised
QUESTION NO: 9
A customer calls with a critical problem for a product that is no longer supported by the help desk. What do you do? (Choose two.)
A. Determine what the real need is
B. Develop alternatives
C. Inform the customer that the product is not supported
D. Apologise for not being able to assist the customer
400-351 vce Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which metric indicates how long a customer has to wait before talking to an analyst?
A. Average talk time
B. Average call time
C. Average speed of answer
D. Average capture time
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement about service level agreements (SLAs) is true?
A. SLAs are used to document service provider expectations only
B. SLAs are used to document customer and service provider expectations
C. SLAs are used to document customer expectations only
D. SLAs are not used to document customer or service provider expectations
QUESTION NO: 12
In what three ways can you convey to the customer a desire and ability to help? (Choose three.)
A. Be confident
B. Be agreeable to all customer opinions
C. Be talkative
D. Be efficient
E. Be enthusiastic, but natural
QUESTION NO: 13
Which four statements about self-help materials are true? (Choose four.)
A. Their location should be explained to employees
B. They should be user-friendly
C. They should contain accurate information
D. They should be timely and relevant
E. They should replace the need for instructor-led training
400-351 dumps Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 14
In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)
A. When you have exhausted your possibilities
B. When your time is limited
C. When you need to build rapport
D. When you need the customer to elaborate
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)
A. Identify changes to products, services and processes
B. Determine management bonuses
C. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help desk
D. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnel
400-351 pdf Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 16
Which three customer resources, if accessible on a company intranet, directly decrease call volume? (Choose three.)
A. Corporate home pages
B. Work/problem ticket request pages
C. Frequently asked questions (FAQs)
D. Knowledge databases
QUESTION NO: 17
What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
A. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
B. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
C. Maintain a clean environment
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
400-351 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 18
Who is responsible for maintaining a working environment conducive to effective inter departmental relationships?
A. Executive management
B. Department managers
D. Human resources
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You are new to the help desk and are asked a question you cannot answer. Which two actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Suggest that the customer ask a peer
B. Ask a peer
C. Escalate the problem
D. Use reference documentation
QUESTION NO: 20
Which statement about telephone etiquette is true?
A. Gum chewing is acceptable as long as the customer cannot hear it
B. Eating is okay as long as you obtain the customer’s consent
C. “Please hold” is an appropriate way to answer the telephone when you are busy
D. It is customary to pick up the telephone between one to three rings
QUESTION NO: 21. A customer has an AMS500 consisting of:
Unit 00: RKM with six 300GB FC HDDs in position 00 to 05.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01. You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group. What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
QUESTION NO: 23. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
400-351 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
QUESTION NO: 25. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0. Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
400-351 vce Answer: ADE
QUESTION NO: 26 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
400-351 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
D. AS PATH
QUESTION NO: 29 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255. 255. 240.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to the same destination IP address in different VPNs. How many bits are there in the flag?
QUESTION NO: 31 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
400-351 pdf Answer: ABC
QUESTION NO: 32 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
QUESTION NO: 33 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
400-351 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message. Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
QUESTION NO: 36 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
QUESTION NO: 37 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
D. 100 200
QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
400-351 pdf Answer: ABCD
QUESTION NO: 40 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
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