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100% Pass Cisco 350-018 Dumps Exam: Cisco – CCIE Security written

350-018 dumps

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What statement is NOT correct based on the display output below? MDS1# show ivr vsan- topology active AFID SWITCH WWN Active Cfg. VSANS
1 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de * yes yes 202,205 1 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40 yes yes 205,298 Total: 2 entries in active IVR VSAN-Topology
Current Status: Inter-VSAN topology is ACTIVE Last activation time: Sat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
A. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de
B. VSAN 205 is the transit VSAN
C. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40
D. VSAN 298 and 202 are edge VSANs
E. IVR topology is activated onSat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
Correct Answer: C
“SCSI LUN discovery” is triggered automatically when:
A. The switch has dual supervisors
B. A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
C. An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D. An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
E. A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch

Correct Answer: CDE
What term is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel Encoding?
A. D28.5
B. K28.5
C. 3b/4b
D. 8b/10b
E. idle

Correct Answer: B
What is the correct configuration to place initiator ABC.iqn into VSANs 3 and 66 only?
A. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 66
B. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn no vsan 1 vsan 3 vsan 66
C. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan member vsan 3,66
D. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 vsan 66
E. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 – 66

Correct Answer: B
What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?

Correct Answer: B
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
C. SNIA, T11

Correct Answer: E
Which non-disruptive method should be used to view the PLOGI of a FC host to a FC target on the same MDS switch?
A. Use an external FCanalyzer on the target port and debug tools on the host system
B. Run fcanalyzer local
C. Span the host port and the target port to a SD port and use a PAA or FC analyzer
D. Run debug plogi on both the Host interface and the storage interface
E. Span the host port and the target port to the mgmt interface and use Ethereal to analyze

Correct Answer: C
In a DH-CHAP enabled port, what is required of a host before it can access the port?
A. An Enterprise license must be loaded on each host to authorize fabric access.
B. Dual HBA support must be configured to support security protocol
C. Host must be connected to an interface in the VSAN range of 100-199
D. Host must have a HBA installed that supports DH-CHAP protocol
E. Host must be running RADIUS or TACACS+ to support server authentication.

Correct Answer: D
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
B. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
C. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
D. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
E. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN

Correct Answer: E
What configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. enable fc targets dynamic
B. fc-target import iscsi
C. iscsi import target fc
D. iscsi target enable fc
E. iscsi virtual-target all

Correct Answer: C
The host attached to MDS-1 at site A needs to access the disk attached to MDS-2 at site B. MDS- 2 is part of a multi-switch fabric. The distance between the two sites is 600 km. What feature could stop fabric reconfiguration changes in site B from disrupting devices connected to MDS-1?
A. Switch to Switch authentication using Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
B. Inter-VSAN Routing
C. FCIP with Special Frame option
D. FCIP Write Acceleration
E. IP Access Lists
Correct Answer: B
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
B. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
C. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
D. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Correct Answer: A
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
B. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
C. Has no affect what so ever on the array
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Same level of redundancy as that of a Raid 1+0

Correct Answer: A
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
B. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Correct Answer: A
What ordered set is used to determine the Class of the frame?

Correct Answer: A
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
Correct Answer: C
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Inrange FC/9000
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Brocade 12000 core PIDmode 1
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

350-018 dumps

What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. TCP port number, write-accelerator, compression ratio
B. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
C. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
D. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
E. Sack-enable, TCP port number, peer-info

Correct Answer: B

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Which Cisco IOS XE process administers routing and forwarding?
A. Forwarding manager
B. Interface manager
C. Cisco IOS
D. Host manager

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Some of the processes are listed in the table below:

Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds).

Which two statements about proxy ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.
B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It must be used on a network with the host on a different subnet.
D. It requires larger ARP tables.
E. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Disadvantages of Proxy ARP
Hosts have no idea of the physical details of their network and assume it to be a flat network in which they can reach any destination simply by sending an ARP
request. But using ARP for everything has disadvantages. These are some of the disadvantages:
It increases the amount of ARP traffic on your segment.
Hosts need larger ARP tables in order to handle IP-to-MAC address mappings.

Security can be undermined. A machine can claim to be another in order to intercept packets, an act called “spoofing.”

It does not work for networks that do not use ARP for address resolution.

It does not generalize to all network topologies. For example, more than one router that connects two physical networks.
Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

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Which service is disabled by the no service tcp-small-servers command?
A. the finger service
B. the Telnet service
C. the Maintenance Operation Protocol service
D. the chargen service

Correct Answer: D Explanation
The TCP small servers are:
Echo: Echoes back whatever you type through the telnet x.x.x.x echo command.
Chargen: Generates a stream of ASCII data. Use the telnet x.x.x.x chargen command.

DiscarD. Throws away whatever you type. Use the telnet x.x.x.x discard command.

DaytimE. Returns system date and time, if it is correct. It is correct if you run Network Time Protocol (NTP), or have set the date and time manually from the

exec level. Use the telnet x.x.x.x daytime command.

Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
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400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching – Cisco