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QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP

Correct Answer: A  400-101 vce
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

300-208 dumps
QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
QUESTION 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

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High Quality Cisco 300-207 Dumps with Accurate Answers

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QUESTION 34
Which Cisco WSA is intended for deployment in organizations of more than 6000 users?
A. WSA S370
B. WSA S670
C. WSA S370-2RU
D. WSA S170
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA?
A. sh run scansafe server
B. sh run scansafe
C. sh run server
D. sh run server scansafe
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. SNMPv1
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv3
E. Syslog

F. SDEE
G. SMTP
Correct Answer: ABCFG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which four statements are correct regarding management access to a Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose four.)
A. The Telnet protocol is enabled by default
B. The Telnet protocol is disabled by default
C. HTTP is enabled by default
D. HTTP is disabled by default
E. SSH is enabled by default
F. SSH is disabled by default
G. HTTPS is enabled by default
H. HTTPS is disabled by default
Correct Answer: BDEG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two GUI options display users’ activity in Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Web Security Manager Identity Identity Name
B. Security Services Reporting
C. Reporting Users
D. Reporting Reports by User Location
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

300-207 dumps
QUESTION 39
The security team needs to limit the number of e-mails they receive from the Intellishield Alert Service. Which three parameters can they adjust to restrict alerts to specific product sets? (Choose three.)
A. Vendor
B. Chassis/Module
C. Device ID
D. Service Contract
E. Version/Release
F. Service Pack/Platform
Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
What three alert notification options are available in Cisco IntelliShield Alert Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Alert Summary as Text
B. Complete Alert as an HTML Attachment
C. Complete Alert as HTML
D. Complete Alert as RSS
E. Alert Summary as Plain Text
F. Alert Summary as MMS
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
With Cisco IDM, which rate limit option specifies the maximum bandwidth for rate-limited traffic?
A. protocol
B. rate
C. bandwidth
D. limit
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two benefits are provided by the dynamic dashboard in Cisco ASDM Version 5.2? (Choose two.)
A. It configures system polices for NAC devices.
B. It forwards traffic to destination devices.
C. It provides statistics for device health.
D. It replaces syslog, RADIUS, and TACACS+ servers.
E. It automatically detects Cisco security appliances to configure.
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server

E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which three search parameters are supported by the Email Security Monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Destination domain
B. Network owner
C. MAC address
D. Policy requirements
E. Internal sender IP address
F. Originating domain
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats?
A. the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert
B. IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts
C. the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database
D. the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal
E. the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A network engineer can assign IPS event action overrides to virtual sensors and configure which three modes? (Choose three.)
A. Anomaly detection operational mode
B. Inline TCP session tracking mode
C. Normalizer mode
D. Load-balancing mode
E. Inline and Promiscuous mixed mode
F. Fail-open and fail-close mode
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two practices are recommended for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Integrate sensors primarily on the more trusted side of the firewall (inside or DMZ interfaces).
B. Integrate sensors primarily on the less trusted side of the firewall (outside interfaces).
C. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths symmetrical.
D. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths asymmetrical.
E. Use NIPS only for small implementations.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service sensor sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service network sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using SPAN with promiscuous mode deployment? (Choose two.)
A. SPAN does not introduce latency to network traffic.
B. SPAN can perform granular scanning on captures of per-IP-address or per-port monitoring.
C. Promiscuous Mode can silently block traffic flows on the IDS.
D. SPAN can analyze network traffic from multiple points. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

What CLI command generated the output?
A. smtproutes
B. tophosts

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