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[100% Free] 2017 New Cisco 210-250 Dumps CCNA Cyber Ops SECFND Free Download on Vimeo

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: May 22, 2017
Q&As: 65
Exam Information: http://www.passitexams.com/210-250.html

The official study guide helps you master topics on the CCNA Cyber Ops SECFND 210-250 exam, including:

  • Network concepts
  • Security concepts
  • Cryptography
  • Host-based analysis
  • Security monitoring
  • Attack methods

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Passitexams Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 8
Where do you find the Mac OS X v.10.2 Connect To Server command?
A. System Preferences
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Finder/File/Connect To Server
E. Finder/Go/Connect To Server

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
What are the different types of user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Child
D. User
E. Limited
F. sudo
G. Windows Only

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
In Finder, how do you set individual user permissions and privileges, other than the standard user permissions? Choose two.
A. Finder/File/Show Info
B. Finder/View/Show Info
C. Command + I
D. Command + S
E. Favorites
F. Apple Menu/Options

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Under each user’s home folder, which folders are visible, contents and all, to every user? Choose all that apply.
A. Desktop
B. Library
C. Shared
D. Documents
E. Inbox
F. Outbox
G. Public
H. Sites

Correct Answer: GH
QUESTION 12
In Mac OS X v. 10.2 where are the fonts stored? Choose two.
A. Library/Fonts
B. Services/Fonts
C. Resources/Fonts
D. Applications/Utilities/Fonts
E. Home folder/Public/Fonts
F. Home folder/Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 13
How can you access the command line in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose all that apply.
A. Applications/Terminal
B. Applications/Darwin
C. Apple Menu/Command Line
D. During startup, hold down Command + S
E. At the Login window, type in >console
F. At the Login window, type in >local
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
What is the minimum amount of physical RAM you must have available to successfully install Mac OS X v.10.2?
A. 32MB
B. 64MB
C. 128MB
D. 312MB
E. 512MB

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Where are web pages stored on a local workstation so that they may be views by a remote client?
A. Home Folder
B. Outbox
C. Public
D. Shared
E. Sites

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
Which developer framework is for applications written to work only within Mac OS X?
A. Classic
B. Cocoa
C. Darwin
D. Java
E. Carbon

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the name of Apple’s web browser, only compatible with Jaguar?
A. Mozilla
B. OmniWeb
C. Safari
D. Camino
E. Finder

Correct Answer: C

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Best CCNA Exam Solutions to Download 2017 Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Study Guide[Video]

The CCNA ICND2 Study Guide, 3rd Edition covers 100 percent of all exam 200-105 dumps objectives. Leading networking authority Todd Lammle provides detailed explanations and clear instruction on IP data networks, switching and routing technologies, IPv4 and IPV6 addressing, troubleshooting, security, and more. Dozens of hands-on labs help you gain experience with important tasks, and expert examples and insights drawn from thirty years of networking bring real-world perspective to essential CCNA skills.

Exam Code: 200-105 
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 204
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html

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QUESTION 24
Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on a separate computer? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Attachment Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service

Correct Answer: AE

 

 

QUESTION 25
Which status in BlackBerry Desktop Redirector indicates that redirection is functioning? (Choose one.)
A. Verifying forwarding address
B. Enabled
C. Running
D. Started
E. On

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 26
In which two of the following locations would a system administrator set an enterprise activation password? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device
B. The BlackBerry device user email clientThe BlackBerry device user? email client
C. The BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
D. The BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry Provisioning System
Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 27
When installing applications through BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what type of file should the application loader tool be looking for? (Choose one.)
A. .exe file
B. .arp file
C. .xml file
D. .alx file
E. .pgp file

Correct Answer: D

 
QUESTION 28
Which two of the following will clear the BlackBerry device calendar database for a user who is connecting to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. Using Advanced Options in the BlackBerry Desktop Manager backup and restore tool
B. Deleting the Desktop [CICAL] service book
C. Performing a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
D. Accessing Calendar > Options and typing RSET
E. Synchronizing with the email client

Correct Answer: AD

 

 
QUESTION 29
Which three of the following are valid synchronization translators in BlackBerry Desktop Manager 4.6?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Sage ACT!
C. ASCII Importer/Exporter
D. Gmail
E. Yahoo!

Correct Answer: ACE  200-105 dumps

 

 

QUESTION 30
When attempting to synchronize ACT! using BlackBerry Desktop Manager version 4.6, a BlackBerry device user repeatedly receives an error during the synchronization process. What is the cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The appropriate connector is not installed
B. ACT! is not a supported application for synchronization
C. The wrong version of BlackBerry Desktop Manager was installed
D. No Internet connection is present
E. The computer does not have a required Windows service pack installed for this operation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 31
The following error message appears on a BlackBerry device: Device Error 507 What could be the cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. An unsupported application has been installed
B. The BlackBerry device battery needs to be charged
C. The BlackBerry device is in an area with insufficient network coverage
D. There are currently no operating systems or applications installed
E. The BlackBerry device has been removed from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 32
Which of the following actions does the ill?command that can be sent from the BlackBerry Administration Service perform? (Choose one.)
A. Reset the password and disable the SIM card
B. Disable the SIM card and turn off the radio
C. Reset password and lock the BlackBerry device
D. Nuke BlackBerry device
E. Delete all BlackBerry device data and disable BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 33
In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a status of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset of the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 34
Which two of the following are methods for activating a BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. On the BlackBerry device, the browser is launched and the user navigates to the organization wireless enterprise activation web page
B. The system administrator connects the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using a USB cable
C. The BlackBerry device user logs in to a mail client and sends an email message to the “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 BlackBerry BCP-221 Exam BlackBerry Enterprise Server with the subject Activation
D. Using a USB cable, the BlackBerry device is connected to the user workstation on the organizations network, and BlackBerry Desktop

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two of the following audio codec are supported by the Media application on BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Device Software 4.5 or higher? (Choose two.)
A. Ogg Vorbis
B. MP3
C. AAC+
D. Real Audio
E. TwinVQ
Correct Answer: BC

 

 

QUESTION 36
Which three of the following notification options are available in the Profiles application? (Choose three.)
A. Alert delay
B. Volume
C. Out of holster options
D. Number of vibrations
E. Outcall muting

Correct Answer: BCD

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New Updated Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-996 PDF DCUFD: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric

The 642-996 pdf provide anyone almost everything you simply must take ones Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFD) v5.0 Cisco Test questions. The particular Computer Technology Industry Association specifics are reviewed as well as that is generated by Professional Documentation Specialists who’re continually utilizing sector expertise to generate correct, and realistic. Our Product or service will help you go away examination with your try, and as well save your valuable time.

Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Updated: Apr 02, 2017
Q&As: 178

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the 642-996 pdf. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Describe the Design Methodology 6%
1.1 Describe developing business trends
1.2 Identify business requirements driving the Data Center design
1.3 Determine the requirements needed to create a Data Center solution
1.4 Describe the tools/process to characterize an existing Data Center
1.5 Describe the top down approach to network design

2.0 Describe Data Center Structure and Modularity 7%
2.1 Describe network architectures for the Data Center
2.1.a LAN
2.1.b SAN
2.2 Describe the Modular Approach in Network Design
2.3 Describe the data center core layer
2.4 Describe the data center aggregation layer
2.5 Describe the data center access layer
2.6 Identify Design Considerations for connectivity between Data Centers
2.7 Identify the environments that use a Cisco data center virtualization solution
2.8 Identify the migration plan from existing to new infrastructure

642-996 pdf

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 642-996 PDF Exam Q&As  

Question No : 11 When designing a data center environment with ECMP and IP routing between the data
center network segments, which design would be the most suitable?
A. Layer 3 data center core
B. Layer 3 data center core with Layer 2 extension
C. Layer 2 data center core
D. Layer 2 data center core with Layer 3 extension
Answer: A

 


Question No : 12 What is one required component to run FCoE?
A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
C. HBA
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D

 

Question No : 13 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate
platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade
Answer: A,B,C

 

Question No : 14 Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?
A. Cisco Adapter FEX is only supported on vSwitch.
B. Cisco Adapter FEX enables the server adapter to be logically partitioned into multiple
vNICs.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX does not provide architectural flexibility.
D. Cisco Adapter FEX increases the number of cables in the data center.
Answer: B

 


642-996 pdf Question No : 15  The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and
on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
A. STP
B. VDC
C. Cisco ISO ISSU
D. HSRP
Answer: B

 

Question No : 16 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data
center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B

 

 

Question No : 17  Which three options does Cisco Data Mobility Manager provide? (Choose three.)
A. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during low traffic hours or minimize
interference
B. brings the need for multiple migration solutions
C. moves from a smaller logical unit number to a larger LUN
D. manages all capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
E. manages all capabilities from CLI
F. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during high traffic hours or maximize
interference
G. manages some capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
Answer: A,C,D

 

Question No : 18  Which three Cisco technologies or solutions are used during the virtualization design into
the data center access layer? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V switch
B. Cisco UCS pass-through switching with VM-FEX
C. Cisco Virtual Services Appliance
D. Cisco Adapter-FEX when using Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
E. Cisco Distributed Virtual Switch
F. Fibre Channel switch mode
Answer: A,B,D

 

Question No : 19  Which protocol is required in order for FabricPath to support switches or hosts that dual
attach through classical Ethernet?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. LISP
D. OTV
E. VSS
F. TRILL
Answer: B
Question No : 20  Which type of 40 Gigabit Ethernet optics should be used for interconnect when the number
of multimode fiber strands used should be kept as low as possible?
A. 40GBASE-SR4
B. 40GBASE-LR4-Lite
C. 40GBASE-SR-BiDi
D. 40GBASE-CR4
Answer: C

 

642-996 pdf Question No : 21 Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
F. iSCSI
Answer: F

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isco 100-105 certifications power new and useful professions. Cisco 100-105 Qualified Professionals spend shorter period interviewing and a longer period driving value. Including Cisco 100-105  pdf certification to your CV helps you take a position out and get hired—quicker. In some cases, certification has permitted choosing supervisors to complete roles 25% more quickly. What’s more, certified new employs are fully effective an entire month earlier than their uncertified colleagues. This level of efficiency makes your impact and skills clearly take a position out.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In Mail, where do you set email rules?
A. Mail/Preferences/
B. Mail/Preferences/Rules
C. Mail/Options/Rules
D. Mail/Rules
E. Mail/Signatures & Rules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What can you see about your drives and partitions using Apple System Profiler?
A. Number and size of partitions
B. Operating System
C. Users
D. root password
E. Number of folders

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When opening a new Terminal window, what is the default location?
A. /login
B. /usr
C. /usr/bin
D. /usr/login/bin
E. /usr/bin/login

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
What application was very dramatically changed with the release of Jaguar to include things like mapping, flight search information and language translations?
A. Finder
B. Help
C. AppleCare
D. Sherlock
E. AppleWorks
Correct Answer: D   200-120 exam

QUESTION 5
What Jaguar tool do you need to coordinate all the information on your iPod or PDA with your Mac?
A. iMatch
B. iSync
C. iPod sync
D. iTools
E. .mac
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

In Server Settings, under the Network tab, how do you disable a NetBoot disk image?
A. Click DHCP/NetBoot and pick Configure DHCP/NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
B. Click DHCP/NetBoot and click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
C. Click DHCP/NetBoot then pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
D. Click NetBoot then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
E. Click NetBoot and pick Configure NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What two applications can you use to find your Macintosh’s MAC address?
A. Network Utility
B. System Preferences
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Directory Setup
E. Apple System Profiler

Correct Answer: AE

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

200-120 exam
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC

200-101 exam
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37

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QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP

Correct Answer: A  400-101 vce
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 34
Which Cisco WSA is intended for deployment in organizations of more than 6000 users?
A. WSA S370
B. WSA S670
C. WSA S370-2RU
D. WSA S170
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA?
A. sh run scansafe server
B. sh run scansafe
C. sh run server
D. sh run server scansafe
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. SNMPv1
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv3
E. Syslog

F. SDEE
G. SMTP
Correct Answer: ABCFG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which four statements are correct regarding management access to a Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose four.)
A. The Telnet protocol is enabled by default
B. The Telnet protocol is disabled by default
C. HTTP is enabled by default
D. HTTP is disabled by default
E. SSH is enabled by default
F. SSH is disabled by default
G. HTTPS is enabled by default
H. HTTPS is disabled by default
Correct Answer: BDEG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two GUI options display users’ activity in Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Web Security Manager Identity Identity Name
B. Security Services Reporting
C. Reporting Users
D. Reporting Reports by User Location
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 39
The security team needs to limit the number of e-mails they receive from the Intellishield Alert Service. Which three parameters can they adjust to restrict alerts to specific product sets? (Choose three.)
A. Vendor
B. Chassis/Module
C. Device ID
D. Service Contract
E. Version/Release
F. Service Pack/Platform
Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
What three alert notification options are available in Cisco IntelliShield Alert Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Alert Summary as Text
B. Complete Alert as an HTML Attachment
C. Complete Alert as HTML
D. Complete Alert as RSS
E. Alert Summary as Plain Text
F. Alert Summary as MMS
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
With Cisco IDM, which rate limit option specifies the maximum bandwidth for rate-limited traffic?
A. protocol
B. rate
C. bandwidth
D. limit
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two benefits are provided by the dynamic dashboard in Cisco ASDM Version 5.2? (Choose two.)
A. It configures system polices for NAC devices.
B. It forwards traffic to destination devices.
C. It provides statistics for device health.
D. It replaces syslog, RADIUS, and TACACS+ servers.
E. It automatically detects Cisco security appliances to configure.
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server

E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which three search parameters are supported by the Email Security Monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Destination domain
B. Network owner
C. MAC address
D. Policy requirements
E. Internal sender IP address
F. Originating domain
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats?
A. the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert
B. IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts
C. the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database
D. the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal
E. the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A network engineer can assign IPS event action overrides to virtual sensors and configure which three modes? (Choose three.)
A. Anomaly detection operational mode
B. Inline TCP session tracking mode
C. Normalizer mode
D. Load-balancing mode
E. Inline and Promiscuous mixed mode
F. Fail-open and fail-close mode
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two practices are recommended for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Integrate sensors primarily on the more trusted side of the firewall (inside or DMZ interfaces).
B. Integrate sensors primarily on the less trusted side of the firewall (outside interfaces).
C. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths symmetrical.
D. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths asymmetrical.
E. Use NIPS only for small implementations.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service sensor sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service network sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using SPAN with promiscuous mode deployment? (Choose two.)
A. SPAN does not introduce latency to network traffic.
B. SPAN can perform granular scanning on captures of per-IP-address or per-port monitoring.
C. Promiscuous Mode can silently block traffic flows on the IDS.
D. SPAN can analyze network traffic from multiple points. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

What CLI command generated the output?
A. smtproutes
B. tophosts

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