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This 70-346 exam is designed for IT professionals who take part in evaluating, planning, deploying, and operating the Office 365 services, including its dependencies, requirements, and supporting technologies. They should have experience with the Office 365 Admin Center and an understanding of Exchange Online, Lync Online, SharePoint Online, Office 365 ProPlus, and Azure Active Directory.
Exam 70-346 Topics:

70-346 exam

  • Provision Office 365 (15–20%)
  • Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365 (15–20%)
  • Manage cloud identities (15–20%)
  • Implement and manage identities by using DirSync (15–20%)
  • Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO]) (15–20%)
  • Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage (15–20%)
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QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
A. WEP is a moderately secure firewall for wireless devices.
B. WEP optimizes performance of 802.11 devices over distances, so they perform as well as their wired equivalents.
C. WEP represents the first attempt at designing an algorithm to protect wireless communication from eavesdropping.
D. WEP allows wireless access point administrators to require user names and passwords of users who want to connect to the wireless access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two (2) actions might a rootkit perform?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Monitor disk activity on the root volume.
B. Install security tools in root’s home directory.
C. Provide remote access to a computer by opening ports.
D. Hide its presence by installing modified versions of system commands
E. Provide a set of tools that allow the system administrator to monitor security events.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
________ is a command-line tool that displays the headers of packets seen by a computer’s network interface card.
A. arp
B. ping
C. netstat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 11
Which statement about SSH tunneling is FALSE?
A. SSH tunnels can support the PPP protocol.
B. SSH tunnels secure all IP traffic, including UDP and TCP.
C. SSH tunnels secure otherwise non-secure traffic, such as POP and AFP.
D. Forwarding port 1023 and below requires root privileges for the initial receiving port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Why might you prefer WPA Enterprise over WPA Personal?
A. You need 128-bit encryption.
B. You do not want to manage a RADIUS server.
C. You require more connections than WPA Personal allows
D. The security implications of WPA Personal’s shared key are not acceptable.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two (2) authentication mechanisms are available to SSH users?
(Choose TWO.)
A. public/private key pair
B. shared ssh_config files
C. user name and password
D. NTLM (NT LAN Manager)
E. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What does Stealth Mode on the Mac OS X Firewall do?
A. It disables the sending of denials to blocked packets.
B. It disables responses to all incoming connection attempts
C. It creates a NAT gateway to hide the true IP address of the computer.
D. It enables responses only to connection attempts from computers that are in the allowed computer list.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
If you see the password dialog shown above, which statement below MUST be true?
A. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry.
B. Mail needs to search a keychain for a relevant entry.
C. Mail is preparing to change the ACL for the keychain entry.
D. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry, but it was not accepted by the server.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two (2) steps to obtain a certificate from a third-party are essential for signing email?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Create a key pair.
B. Change the key size to 128 bits.
C. Store a key pair in your login keychain.
D. Generate a CSR (Certificate Signing Request).
E. Use Certificate Assistant to generate a CA (Certificate Authority).

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
The Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA) is ________.
A. a cryptographic services toolkit
B. a file system security infrastructure
C. a secure authentication method built into LDAP
D. a modular approach to networking and Internet services

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
70-532 Dumps Tests Detail:Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Skills Measured

This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
C. IIS logs70-532 dumps
D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps

F. Application logs
Answer: D,E

 

NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B  400-101 vce

 

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In Mail, where do you set email rules?
A. Mail/Preferences/
B. Mail/Preferences/Rules
C. Mail/Options/Rules
D. Mail/Rules
E. Mail/Signatures & Rules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What can you see about your drives and partitions using Apple System Profiler?
A. Number and size of partitions
B. Operating System
C. Users
D. root password
E. Number of folders

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When opening a new Terminal window, what is the default location?
A. /login
B. /usr
C. /usr/bin
D. /usr/login/bin
E. /usr/bin/login

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
What application was very dramatically changed with the release of Jaguar to include things like mapping, flight search information and language translations?
A. Finder
B. Help
C. AppleCare
D. Sherlock
E. AppleWorks
Correct Answer: D   200-120 exam

QUESTION 5
What Jaguar tool do you need to coordinate all the information on your iPod or PDA with your Mac?
A. iMatch
B. iSync
C. iPod sync
D. iTools
E. .mac
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

In Server Settings, under the Network tab, how do you disable a NetBoot disk image?
A. Click DHCP/NetBoot and pick Configure DHCP/NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
B. Click DHCP/NetBoot and click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
C. Click DHCP/NetBoot then pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
D. Click NetBoot then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
E. Click NetBoot and pick Configure NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What two applications can you use to find your Macintosh’s MAC address?
A. Network Utility
B. System Preferences
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Directory Setup
E. Apple System Profiler

Correct Answer: AE

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

200-120 exam
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC

200-101 exam
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37

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QUESTION 178
If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service
B. Virtual Private LAN Service
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?
A. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.
B. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.
C. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.
D. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point connections.
Correct Answer: B   350-018 dumps
QUESTION 180
Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?
A. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
B. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
C. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.
D. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 181
In what OSPF area type will one see Type 7 LSAs.
A. Not So Stubby Area (NSSA)
B. Stub Area
C. Backbone Area
D. Normal Area

Correct Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100

 

QUESTION 182
Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 183
What is store/forward method of switching frames?
A. The switch merely looks at the source mac address before switching
B. The switch looks at the source and destination mac address before switching.
C. The switch looks at the IP header information before switching
D. The switch receives the whole frame before switching.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html

QUESTION 184
An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. Flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. Filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. Age out the source address forwarding table entry

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 185
Which of the following must be true for an Ethernet network to operate in full duplex mode? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated point-to-point connectivity
B. Collision detection circuit enabled
C. Shared network connectivity
D. Collision detection circuit disabled Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 186
Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 187

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QUESTION 166
Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two.
A. VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service
B. VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol
E. VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: DE

Correct Answer: B  98-366 pdf
QUESTION 167
Which statement best describes a SAP?
A. The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.
B. The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.
C. The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.
D. The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

 

QUESTION 168
Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 169
SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 170
Which statement best describes an SDP?
A. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
B. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
C. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.
D. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

Correct Answer: A http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html
QUESTION 171
Which statement best describes a VPRN service?
A. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.
B. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.
C. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.
D. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 172
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.
C. A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.
D. A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 173
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.
C. A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.
D. A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 174
A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html`w“
QUESTION 175
Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?
A. Ethernet.
B. ATM.
C. Frame Relay.
D. Token Ring.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 176
If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service.
B. Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks.
D. Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: A

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