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QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC

200-101 exam
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37

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QUESTION 178
If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service
B. Virtual Private LAN Service
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?
A. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.
B. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.
C. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.
D. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point connections.
Correct Answer: B   350-018 dumps
QUESTION 180
Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?
A. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
B. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
C. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.
D. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 181
In what OSPF area type will one see Type 7 LSAs.
A. Not So Stubby Area (NSSA)
B. Stub Area
C. Backbone Area
D. Normal Area

Correct Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100

 

QUESTION 182
Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 183
What is store/forward method of switching frames?
A. The switch merely looks at the source mac address before switching
B. The switch looks at the source and destination mac address before switching.
C. The switch looks at the IP header information before switching
D. The switch receives the whole frame before switching.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html

QUESTION 184
An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. Flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. Filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. Age out the source address forwarding table entry

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 185
Which of the following must be true for an Ethernet network to operate in full duplex mode? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated point-to-point connectivity
B. Collision detection circuit enabled
C. Shared network connectivity
D. Collision detection circuit disabled Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 186
Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 187

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QUESTION 166
Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two.
A. VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service
B. VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol
E. VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: DE

Correct Answer: B  98-366 pdf
QUESTION 167
Which statement best describes a SAP?
A. The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.
B. The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.
C. The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.
D. The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

 

QUESTION 168
Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 169
SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 170
Which statement best describes an SDP?
A. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
B. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
C. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.
D. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

Correct Answer: A http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html
QUESTION 171
Which statement best describes a VPRN service?
A. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.
B. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.
C. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.
D. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 172
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.
C. A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.
D. A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 173
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.
C. A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.
D. A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 174
A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html`w“
QUESTION 175
Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?
A. Ethernet.
B. ATM.
C. Frame Relay.
D. Token Ring.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 176
If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service.
B. Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks.
D. Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 50
The exercise price in an option contract is:
A. The price of the underlying instrument at the time of the transaction
B. The price at which the transaction on the underlying instrument will be carried out if and when the option is exercised
C. The price the buyer of the option pays to the seller when entering into the options contract
D. The price at which the two counterparties can close-out their position

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
An `at-the-money’ option has:
A. Intrinsic value but no time value
B. Time value but no intrinsic value
C. Both time value and intrinsic value
D. Neither time value nor intrinsic value Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The vega of an option is:
A. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in interest rates
B. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in implied volatility
C. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the time to expiry
D. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the price of the underlying

Correct Answer: B  Reference:http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 53
An option is:
A. The right to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
B. The right to buy a commodity at a fixed price
C. The right but not the obligation to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
D. The right but not the obligation to buy a commodity at a fixed price

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
A put option is `out-of-the-money’ if:
A. Its strike price is higher than the current market price of the underlying commodity
B. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is higher than the strike price of the option
C. Its strike price is equal to the current market price of the underlying commodity
D. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is lower than the strike price of the option

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which of the following transactions would have the effect of lengthening the average duration of assets in the banking book?
A. buying futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
B. selling futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
C. buying put options on 30-year German Government bonds
D. buying a 3×6 forward rate agreement

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is a `duration gap’?
A. the average maturity of liabilities on a balance sheet
B. the difference between the duration of assets and liabilities
C. the difference between the duration of the longest-held and shortest-held liabilities on the balance sheet
D. the average maturity of the portfolio on the asset side of a balance sheet

Correct Answer: B  300-208 dumps

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QUESTION 57
Which statement about modern matched-maturity transfer pricing in banks is correct?
A. It is now a widely accepted standard that banks should use a single representative transfer price across the entire maturity spectrum.
B. Modern matched-maturity pricing systems include an additional liquidity surcharge that is specifically applied to more liquid short maturities.
C. Matched-maturity transfer prices should represent a weighted average cost of capital that incorporates the cost of equity into the cost of borrowed funds.
D. Modern matched-maturity systems differentiate transfer prices by the maturity of the commitment and also apply a marginal funding cost perspective.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Supervisors would generally consider interest rate risk exposure in the banking book excessive beginning at what level of losses given a +1- 200 bps market rate movement?
A. > 2% of 6 months forward earnings
B. > 20% of regulatory capital
C. <10% of regulatory capital
D. < 5% of 12 months forward earnings

Correct Answer: B  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html

QUESTION 59

Which one of the following statements is incorrect? Hedge accounting of an existing position no longer applies when:
A. the trader acquires additional exposure in the hedged item.
B. the hedging instrument is sold, terminated or exercised.
C. the hedged item is sold or settled.
D. a hedge fails the effectiveness test.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a function of asset and liability management (ALM)?
A. coordinated limit management of a financial institution’s credit portfolio
B. running a matched trading book
C. monitoring credit quality of assets and establishing a early warning system
D. managing the financial risk of the bank by protecting it from the adverse effects of changing interest rates

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 48
The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
E. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network.
The user was able to connect to the network resources yesterday.
You verify that the user’s computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the
computer’s IP address is 169.254.48.97.

You need to restore access to network resources. What should you do next?
A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.
B. Reset the user’s password on the server.
C. Check your router’s current routing tables.
D. Verify that the DHCP service is available.

Correct Answer: D     c_grcac_10 exam

QUESTION 50
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:
A. corp
B. com
C. nwtraders
D. exchange
E. mail

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTE
C. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 53
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D. ::1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1

D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: D  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
QUESTION 55
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
A. IDS
B. DNS Server
C. NAT Server

D. IPS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
The ipconfig command will:
A. Configure routers
B. Display a client’s address
C. Display a client’s broadcast mode
D. Configure DHCP clients
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which of these is an application layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP

Correct Answer: A  400-101 vce
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
QUESTION 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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070-462 Study Materials Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table: One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Perform a page restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Answer: F

Explanation: 300-207 dumps
To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.

NO.2 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the VARBINARY data type.
B. Use the CAST function.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use the DATETIME data type.
E. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
F. Use a user-defined table type.
G. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
H. Use an appropriate collation.
I. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
J. Use the DATE data type.
Answer: C

 

NO.3 You have recently removed a SQL 2012 Database Engine instance from a computer running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Prior to the removal of the instance, you had configured
affinity so that the default instance used CPU 0 and 1 and the second instance used CPU 2 and 3. You want to ensure that the default instance can use all processors available to the host.
Which of the following commands would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = AUTO
B. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,4
C. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,1
D. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 2,3
Answer: A

 

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