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QUESTION 178
If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service
B. Virtual Private LAN Service
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?
A. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.
B. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.
C. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.
D. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point connections.
Correct Answer: B   350-018 dumps
QUESTION 180
Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?
A. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
B. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
C. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.
D. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 181
In what OSPF area type will one see Type 7 LSAs.
A. Not So Stubby Area (NSSA)
B. Stub Area
C. Backbone Area
D. Normal Area

Correct Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100

 

QUESTION 182
Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 183
What is store/forward method of switching frames?
A. The switch merely looks at the source mac address before switching
B. The switch looks at the source and destination mac address before switching.
C. The switch looks at the IP header information before switching
D. The switch receives the whole frame before switching.

Correct Answer: D  http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html

QUESTION 184
An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. Flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. Filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. Age out the source address forwarding table entry

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 185
Which of the following must be true for an Ethernet network to operate in full duplex mode? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated point-to-point connectivity
B. Collision detection circuit enabled
C. Shared network connectivity
D. Collision detection circuit disabled Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 186
Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 187

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QUESTION 166
Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two.
A. VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service
B. VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks
D. MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol
E. VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: DE

Correct Answer: B  98-366 pdf
QUESTION 167
Which statement best describes a SAP?
A. The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.
B. The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.
C. The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.
D. The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

 

QUESTION 168
Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 169
SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 170
Which statement best describes an SDP?
A. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
B. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
C. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.
D. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

Correct Answer: A http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html
QUESTION 171
Which statement best describes a VPRN service?
A. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.
B. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.
C. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.
D. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 172
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.
C. A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.
D. A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 173
How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?
A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.
B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.
C. A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.
D. A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 174
A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B http://www.braindumpscity.com/alcatel-lucent-4a0-100-pdf-files.html`w“
QUESTION 175
Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?
A. Ethernet.
B. ATM.
C. Frame Relay.
D. Token Ring.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 176
If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?
A. Virtual Private Wire Service.
B. Virtual Private LAN Service.
C. Virtual Private Routed Networks.
D. Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 50
The exercise price in an option contract is:
A. The price of the underlying instrument at the time of the transaction
B. The price at which the transaction on the underlying instrument will be carried out if and when the option is exercised
C. The price the buyer of the option pays to the seller when entering into the options contract
D. The price at which the two counterparties can close-out their position

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
An `at-the-money’ option has:
A. Intrinsic value but no time value
B. Time value but no intrinsic value
C. Both time value and intrinsic value
D. Neither time value nor intrinsic value Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The vega of an option is:
A. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in interest rates
B. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in implied volatility
C. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the time to expiry
D. The sensitivity of the option value to changes in the price of the underlying

Correct Answer: B  Reference:http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html

QUESTION 53
An option is:
A. The right to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
B. The right to buy a commodity at a fixed price
C. The right but not the obligation to buy or sell a commodity at a fixed price
D. The right but not the obligation to buy a commodity at a fixed price

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
A put option is `out-of-the-money’ if:
A. Its strike price is higher than the current market price of the underlying commodity
B. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is higher than the strike price of the option
C. Its strike price is equal to the current market price of the underlying commodity
D. If the current market price of the underlying commodity is lower than the strike price of the option

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which of the following transactions would have the effect of lengthening the average duration of assets in the banking book?
A. buying futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
B. selling futures contracts on 30-year German Government bonds
C. buying put options on 30-year German Government bonds
D. buying a 3×6 forward rate agreement

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is a `duration gap’?
A. the average maturity of liabilities on a balance sheet
B. the difference between the duration of assets and liabilities
C. the difference between the duration of the longest-held and shortest-held liabilities on the balance sheet
D. the average maturity of the portfolio on the asset side of a balance sheet

Correct Answer: B  300-208 dumps

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QUESTION 57
Which statement about modern matched-maturity transfer pricing in banks is correct?
A. It is now a widely accepted standard that banks should use a single representative transfer price across the entire maturity spectrum.
B. Modern matched-maturity pricing systems include an additional liquidity surcharge that is specifically applied to more liquid short maturities.
C. Matched-maturity transfer prices should represent a weighted average cost of capital that incorporates the cost of equity into the cost of borrowed funds.
D. Modern matched-maturity systems differentiate transfer prices by the maturity of the commitment and also apply a marginal funding cost perspective.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Supervisors would generally consider interest rate risk exposure in the banking book excessive beginning at what level of losses given a +1- 200 bps market rate movement?
A. > 2% of 6 months forward earnings
B. > 20% of regulatory capital
C. <10% of regulatory capital
D. < 5% of 12 months forward earnings

Correct Answer: B  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html

QUESTION 59

Which one of the following statements is incorrect? Hedge accounting of an existing position no longer applies when:
A. the trader acquires additional exposure in the hedged item.
B. the hedging instrument is sold, terminated or exercised.
C. the hedged item is sold or settled.
D. a hedge fails the effectiveness test.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a function of asset and liability management (ALM)?
A. coordinated limit management of a financial institution’s credit portfolio
B. running a matched trading book
C. monitoring credit quality of assets and establishing a early warning system
D. managing the financial risk of the bank by protecting it from the adverse effects of changing interest rates

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 48
The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
E. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network.
The user was able to connect to the network resources yesterday.
You verify that the user’s computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the
computer’s IP address is 169.254.48.97.

You need to restore access to network resources. What should you do next?
A. Flush the cache on the DNS server.
B. Reset the user’s password on the server.
C. Check your router’s current routing tables.
D. Verify that the DHCP service is available.

Correct Answer: D     c_grcac_10 exam

QUESTION 50
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:
A. corp
B. com
C. nwtraders
D. exchange
E. mail

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 51
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTE
C. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 53
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D. ::1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1

D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: D  http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
QUESTION 55
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?
A. IDS
B. DNS Server
C. NAT Server

D. IPS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
The ipconfig command will:
A. Configure routers
B. Display a client’s address
C. Display a client’s broadcast mode
D. Configure DHCP clients
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which of these is an application layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP

Correct Answer: A  400-101 vce
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE distributed deployments support which three features? (Choose three.)
A. global implementation of the profiler service CoA
B. global implementation of the profiler service in Cisco ISE
C. configuration to send system logs to the appropriate profiler node
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. server-specific probe configuration
F. NetFlow probes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
QUESTION 15
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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NO.1 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table: One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Perform a page restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Answer: F

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To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.

NO.2 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the VARBINARY data type.
B. Use the CAST function.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use the DATETIME data type.
E. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
F. Use a user-defined table type.
G. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
H. Use an appropriate collation.
I. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
J. Use the DATE data type.
Answer: C

 

NO.3 You have recently removed a SQL 2012 Database Engine instance from a computer running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Prior to the removal of the instance, you had configured
affinity so that the default instance used CPU 0 and 1 and the second instance used CPU 2 and 3. You want to ensure that the default instance can use all processors available to the host.
Which of the following commands would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = AUTO
B. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,4
C. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,1
D. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 2,3
Answer: A

 

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QUESTION 34
Which Cisco WSA is intended for deployment in organizations of more than 6000 users?
A. WSA S370
B. WSA S670
C. WSA S370-2RU
D. WSA S170
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA?
A. sh run scansafe server
B. sh run scansafe
C. sh run server
D. sh run server scansafe
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. SNMPv1
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv3
E. Syslog

F. SDEE
G. SMTP
Correct Answer: ABCFG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which four statements are correct regarding management access to a Cisco Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose four.)
A. The Telnet protocol is enabled by default
B. The Telnet protocol is disabled by default
C. HTTP is enabled by default
D. HTTP is disabled by default
E. SSH is enabled by default
F. SSH is disabled by default
G. HTTPS is enabled by default
H. HTTPS is disabled by default
Correct Answer: BDEG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two GUI options display users’ activity in Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Web Security Manager Identity Identity Name
B. Security Services Reporting
C. Reporting Users
D. Reporting Reports by User Location
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 39
The security team needs to limit the number of e-mails they receive from the Intellishield Alert Service. Which three parameters can they adjust to restrict alerts to specific product sets? (Choose three.)
A. Vendor
B. Chassis/Module
C. Device ID
D. Service Contract
E. Version/Release
F. Service Pack/Platform
Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
What three alert notification options are available in Cisco IntelliShield Alert Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Alert Summary as Text
B. Complete Alert as an HTML Attachment
C. Complete Alert as HTML
D. Complete Alert as RSS
E. Alert Summary as Plain Text
F. Alert Summary as MMS
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
With Cisco IDM, which rate limit option specifies the maximum bandwidth for rate-limited traffic?
A. protocol
B. rate
C. bandwidth
D. limit
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two benefits are provided by the dynamic dashboard in Cisco ASDM Version 5.2? (Choose two.)
A. It configures system polices for NAC devices.
B. It forwards traffic to destination devices.
C. It provides statistics for device health.
D. It replaces syslog, RADIUS, and TACACS+ servers.
E. It automatically detects Cisco security appliances to configure.
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?
A. Cisco Prime LAN Management
B. Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C. Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D. Syslog Server

E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which three search parameters are supported by the Email Security Monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Destination domain
B. Network owner
C. MAC address
D. Policy requirements
E. Internal sender IP address
F. Originating domain
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats?
A. the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert
B. IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts
C. the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database
D. the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal
E. the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A network engineer can assign IPS event action overrides to virtual sensors and configure which three modes? (Choose three.)
A. Anomaly detection operational mode
B. Inline TCP session tracking mode
C. Normalizer mode
D. Load-balancing mode
E. Inline and Promiscuous mixed mode
F. Fail-open and fail-close mode
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?
A. Inline; fail open
B. Inline; fail closed
C. Promiscuous; fail open
D. Promiscuous; fail closed
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two practices are recommended for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Integrate sensors primarily on the more trusted side of the firewall (inside or DMZ interfaces).
B. Integrate sensors primarily on the less trusted side of the firewall (outside interfaces).
C. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths symmetrical.
D. Implement redundant IPS and make data paths asymmetrical.
E. Use NIPS only for small implementations.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?
A. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service sensor sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
C. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service host sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D. sensor# configure terminal sensor(config)# service network sensor(config-hos)# network-settings sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using SPAN with promiscuous mode deployment? (Choose two.)
A. SPAN does not introduce latency to network traffic.
B. SPAN can perform granular scanning on captures of per-IP-address or per-port monitoring.
C. Promiscuous Mode can silently block traffic flows on the IDS.
D. SPAN can analyze network traffic from multiple points. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
What are the initial actions that can be performed on an incoming SMTP session by the workqueue of a Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Accept, Reject, Relay, TCPRefuse
B. LDAP Verification, Envelope Sender Verification, Bounce Verification, Alias Table Verification
C. Recipient Access Table Verification, Host DNS Verification, Masquerading, Spam Payload Check
D. SMTP Authentication, SBRS Verification, Sendergroup matching, DNS host verification Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

What CLI command generated the output?
A. smtproutes
B. tophosts

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QUESTION 102
What statement is NOT correct based on the display output below? MDS1# show ivr vsan- topology active AFID SWITCH WWN Active Cfg. VSANS
1 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de * yes yes 202,205 1 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40 yes yes 205,298 Total: 2 entries in active IVR VSAN-Topology
Current Status: Inter-VSAN topology is ACTIVE Last activation time: Sat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
A. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de
B. VSAN 205 is the transit VSAN
C. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40
D. VSAN 298 and 202 are edge VSANs
E. IVR topology is activated onSat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
“SCSI LUN discovery” is triggered automatically when:
A. The switch has dual supervisors
B. A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
C. An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D. An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
E. A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
What term is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel Encoding?
A. D28.5
B. K28.5
C. 3b/4b
D. 8b/10b
E. idle

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
What is the correct configuration to place initiator ABC.iqn into VSANs 3 and 66 only?
A. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 66
B. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn no vsan 1 vsan 3 vsan 66
C. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan member vsan 3,66
D. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 vsan 66
E. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 – 66

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?
A. EPP
B. ELP
C. ESC
D. EFP
E. LSU

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. FCIA, IETF
B. SNIA, IETF
C. SNIA, T11
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. IETF, ANSI

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
Which non-disruptive method should be used to view the PLOGI of a FC host to a FC target on the same MDS switch?
A. Use an external FCanalyzer on the target port and debug tools on the host system
B. Run fcanalyzer local
C. Span the host port and the target port to a SD port and use a PAA or FC analyzer
D. Run debug plogi on both the Host interface and the storage interface
E. Span the host port and the target port to the mgmt interface and use Ethereal to analyze

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
In a DH-CHAP enabled port, what is required of a host before it can access the port?
A. An Enterprise license must be loaded on each host to authorize fabric access.
B. Dual HBA support must be configured to support security protocol
C. Host must be connected to an interface in the VSAN range of 100-199
D. Host must have a HBA installed that supports DH-CHAP protocol
E. Host must be running RADIUS or TACACS+ to support server authentication.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
B. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
C. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
D. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
E. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
What configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. enable fc targets dynamic
B. fc-target import iscsi
C. iscsi import target fc
D. iscsi target enable fc
E. iscsi virtual-target all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
The host attached to MDS-1 at site A needs to access the disk attached to MDS-2 at site B. MDS- 2 is part of a multi-switch fabric. The distance between the two sites is 600 km. What feature could stop fabric reconfiguration changes in site B from disrupting devices connected to MDS-1?
A. Switch to Switch authentication using Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
B. Inter-VSAN Routing
C. FCIP with Special Frame option
D. FCIP Write Acceleration
E. IP Access Lists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
B. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
C. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
D. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
B. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
C. Has no affect what so ever on the array
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Same level of redundancy as that of a Raid 1+0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
B. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
C. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
What ordered set is used to determine the Class of the frame?
A. SOF
B. LIP
C. TYP
D. SYN
E. COF

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FB
B. FF.FF.FE
C. FF.FF.FD
D. FF.FF.FC
E. FF.FF.FA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Inrange FC/9000
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Brocade 12000 core PIDmode 1
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 120
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. TCP port number, write-accelerator, compression ratio
B. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
C. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
D. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
E. Sack-enable, TCP port number, peer-info

Correct Answer: B

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