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In this episode of Prep tips from certification experts, James Seymour, Certification Planner, and Aaron Steele, Microsoft Consulting Services, discuss the relevancy of the skills being measured on Exam 489.

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  • Developing SharePoint Server Advanced Solutions Jump Start

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-489 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-32)

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers. Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site. What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.Document Management. DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.Document Management.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development. Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures. Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name. Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files. What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service. What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
070-489 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication for the external content type in the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally. The solution must use the SQL Server user named sqltrey to connect to the database.

QUESTION 11
You need to add code at line AJ05 to complete the implementation of the app. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 dumps Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 12
You need to create the external content type to support the data model. In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally

QUESTION 13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
070-489 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 14. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

QUESTION 15. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
070-489 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session D.
Transport
Answer: A

QUESTION 17. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
070-489 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 18. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

QUESTION 19. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D.LLC header
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 20. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION 21. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
070-489 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 22. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

QUESTION 23. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
070-489 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 24. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B.Transport
C.Network
D.Data Link
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is .
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
070-489 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C.A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. When inspecting frames from a capture, start with the Decode window.
A. Hex
B. Objects tab
C. Detail
D. Summary
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 28. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A

QUESTION 29. If you are baselining the time it takes to download a 2 MB file, which of the following display options would help you determine the total download time?.
A. Relative time
B. Status column
C. Delta time
D. Absolute time
070-489 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION 30. The Decode Summary window will
A. Display only Application layer protocols
B. Provide an overview of the captured frames
C. Only display legal size frames
D. Display runt or legal size frames but not oversize frames
Answer: B

QUESTION 31. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
070-489 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 32. The most common VLAN grouping technique is .
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D
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070-489 dumps
070-489 dumps
070-489 dumps
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(21-38)

QUESTION 21
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 dumps

100-105 exam Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has

QUESTION 23
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, us

QUESTION 24
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.

QUESTION 25
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path 

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

QUESTION 27
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
If management expects 100 percent compliance with a procedure, which of the following sampling approaches would be most appropriate?
A. Attributes sampling.
B. Discovery sampling.
C. Targeted sampling.
D. Variables sampling.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditor is discussing an audit problem with an engagement client. While listening to the client, the internal auditor should:
A. Prepare a response to the client.
B. Take mental notes on the speaker’s nonverbal communication, as it is more important than what is being said.
C. Make sure that all details, as well as the main ideas of the client, are remembered.
D. Integrate the incoming information from the client with information that is already known.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
An auditor is using an internal control questionnaire as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following is the best reason for the auditor to interview management regarding the questionnaire responses?
A. Interviews provide the opportunity to insert questions to probe promising areas.
B. Interviews are the most efficient way to upgrade the information to the level of objective evidence.
C. Interviewing is the least costly audit technique when a large amount of information is involved.
D. Interviewing is the only audit procedure which does not require confirmation of the information that is obtained.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Many questionnaires are made up of a series of different questions that use the same response categories (for example: strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree). Some designs will have different groups of respondents answer alternate versions of the questionnaire that present the questions in different orders and reverse the orientation of the endpoints of the scale (for example: agree on the right and disagree on the left). The purpose of such questionnaire variations is to:
A. Eliminate intentional misrepresentations.
B. Reduce the effects of pattern response tendencies.
C. Test whether respondents are reading the questionnaire.
D. Make it possible to get information about more than one population parameter using the same questions.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
An auditor used a questionnaire during an interview to gather information about the nature of credit sales processing. The questionnaire did not cover some pertinent information offered by the person being interviewed, and the auditor did not document the potential problems for further investigation. The primary deficiency with the above process is that:
A. The auditor failed to consider the importance of the information offered.
B. A questionnaire was used in a situation where a structured interview should have been used.
C. Using a questionnaire precludes the auditor from documenting other information.
D. The engagement program was incomplete.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The use of standard operating procedure questionnaires in audit fieldwork can be beneficial because.
A. These questionnaires can both identify discrepancies and educate clients.
B. Standard operating procedures are essential to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations.
C. These questionnaires are more comprehensive than are other types of techniques for gathering data during fieldwork.
D. These questionnaires do not normally require prior clearance with management of the audited area.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Checklists used to assess audit risk have been criticized for all of the following reasons except:
A. Providing a false sense of security that all relevant factors are addressed.
B. Inappropriately implying equal weight to each item on the checklist.
C. Decreasing the uniformity of data acquisition.
D. Being incapable of translating the experience or sound reasoning intended to be captured by each item
on the checklist.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
A limitation of using ratio analysis in an audit engagement is that it:
A. Often uses financial information provided by management which has not been reviewed for reliability and validity.
B. Is an expensive method of testing.
C. Requires computer software in order to develop meaningful interpretations of data.
D. Is useful only when comparisons can be made across other industries.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Ben is the project manager of the NHF Project for his organization. Some delays early in the project have caused the project schedule to slip by nearly 15 percent. Management would like Ben to find a method to recoup the schedule slippage and to get the project back on track. Management is risk- adverse with this project. Which of the following methods should Ben avoid to recoup the project time?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Adding lead time
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, Ben should avoid fast tracking, as it allows complete phases of the project to overlap, and this increases project risks. Management wants to avoid risks, so fast tracking would not be helpful. Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope.
Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing adds people and costs but is relatively safe in regard to risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Critical chain is not a schedule compression technique and would not  necessarily help the project get back on schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. Lead time, similar to fast tracking, can increase project risks; however, fast tracking is more risky than lead time. Lead time allows individual activities to overlap, while fast tracking allows entire project phases to overlap.

QUESTION 37
Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to create a report on her project’s performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?
A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index
B. Scope baseline
C. Performance measurement baseline
D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report. Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the scope, whereas
performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation. Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule performance. Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.

QUESTION 38
Which of the following documents captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and a timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer?
A. Project charter
B. Scope of statement
C. SOW
D. WBS
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document. Answer option B is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project. Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As(2-40)

QUESTION NO: 2
What is a key benefit of purchasing a knowledge database?
A. It provides comprehensive information on proprietary applications
B. It is inexpensive to purchase
C. It provides comprehensive information on commonly used hardware and software
D. It is inexpensive to update
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which three are the most common type of network problems? (Choose three.)
A. Collisions, congestion, and delays
B. Segment or ring does not respond, traffic limited, no workaround
C. Systems will not reboot
D. Users cannot reach connected devices, i.e., PC, servers, workstations
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?
A. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)
B. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customer
C. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptable
D. They determine what level of support the customer is receiving
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications
B. Results in customers calling less frequently
C. Helps customers make better decisions
D. Improves quality and accuracy
400-351 dumps Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 6
You are working as a help desk analyst and receive a call from the network administrator informing you that a server is down. Which action should you perform first?
A. Inform the other help desk analysts
B. Troubleshoot the problem yourself
C. Call all customers that use the server
D. Wait for customers to call the help desk
 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do is ?
A. Find someone else who can understand the customer better
B. Ask the customer is there is someone else in theirorganisation for you to talk to
C. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them
D. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding them
400-351 pdf Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 8
What are three key strengths of critical thinkers? (Choose three.)
A. They are logical
B. They are empathetic
C. They are analytical
D. They areorganised
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer calls with a critical problem for a product that is no longer supported by the help desk. What do you do? (Choose two.)
A. Determine what the real need is
B. Develop alternatives
C. Inform the customer that the product is not supported
D. Apologise for not being able to assist the customer
400-351 vce Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 10
Which metric indicates how long a customer has to wait before talking to an analyst?
A. Average talk time
B. Average call time
C. Average speed of answer
D. Average capture time
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement about service level agreements (SLAs) is true?
A. SLAs are used to document service provider expectations only
B. SLAs are used to document customer and service provider expectations
C. SLAs are used to document customer expectations only
D. SLAs are not used to document customer or service provider expectations
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12
In what three ways can you convey to the customer a desire and ability to help? (Choose three.)
A. Be confident
B. Be agreeable to all customer opinions
C. Be talkative
D. Be efficient
E. Be enthusiastic, but natural
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 13
Which four statements about self-help materials are true? (Choose four.)
A. Their location should be explained to employees
B. They should be user-friendly
C. They should contain accurate information
D. They should be timely and relevant
E. They should replace the need for instructor-led training
400-351 dumps Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 14
In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)
A. When you have exhausted your possibilities
B. When your time is limited
C. When you need to build rapport
D. When you need the customer to elaborate
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 15
Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)
A. Identify changes to products, services and processes
B. Determine management bonuses
C. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help desk
D. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnel
400-351 pdf Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 16
Which three customer resources, if accessible on a company intranet, directly decrease call volume? (Choose three.)
A. Corporate home pages
B. Work/problem ticket request pages
C. Frequently asked questions (FAQs)
D. Knowledge databases
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 17
What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
 A. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
B. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
C. Maintain a clean environment
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
400-351 vce Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 18
Who is responsible for maintaining a working environment conducive to effective inter departmental relationships?
A. Executive management
B. Department managers
C. Everyone
D. Human resources
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
You are new to the help desk and are asked a question you cannot answer. Which two actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Suggest that the customer ask a peer
B. Ask a peer
C. Escalate the problem
D. Use reference documentation
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 20
Which statement about telephone etiquette is true?
A. Gum chewing is acceptable as long as the customer cannot hear it
B. Eating is okay as long as you obtain the customer’s consent
C. “Please hold” is an appropriate way to answer the telephone when you are busy
D. It is customary to pick up the telephone between one to three rings
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21. A customer has an AMS500 consisting of:
Unit 00: RKM with six 300GB FC HDDs in position 00 to 05.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01. You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group. What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 22. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
QUESTION NO: 23. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
400-351 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 25. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0. Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
400-351 vce Answer: ADE

QUESTION NO: 26 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
400-351 exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 27 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

QUESTION NO: 29 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255. 255. 240.
A. True
B. False
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to the same destination IP address in different VPNs. How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 31 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
400-351 pdf Answer: ABC

QUESTION NO: 32 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B.False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
400-351 vce Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 34 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information.
400-351 exam Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 35 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message. Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

QUESTION NO: 36 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 37 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
400-351 pdf Answer: ABCD

QUESTION NO: 40 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 700-070 Dump Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
700-070 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision  coverage?
If width > lenth then
Biggest_diension = width
If height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
Biggest_diension = length
If height>length
Then
Biggest_dimension = height
End_if
End_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
700-070 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
700-070 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Exhibit:
Match the terms and statements being displaced in the exhibit.
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
700-070 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Exhibit:
Which of the activities in the exhibit should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool?
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Answer: D
 QUESTION NO: 9
Exhibit:
Please refer to the exhibit. From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
700-070 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80.
C. 4, 5, 99.
D. 1, 20, 100.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?
A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.
700-070 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
Exhibit:
Which of the items displayed in the exhibit are characteristic of regression testing.
A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO:13 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
700-070 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO:14 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB C.
128 KB D.
256 KB
Answer: C
QUESTION NO:15 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
700-070 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO:16 The unlicensed version of SmartPools enables you to do what? (Choose 1)
A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO:17 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
700-070 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO:18 You are configuring a synchronization between two clusters using SyncIQ. You re root directory is /ifs/data. You create an include statement for /ifs/data/media and an exclude statement of /ifs/data/public. What will be synchronized to the other cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Nothing will be synchronized.
B. Everything in the ifs/data folder will be synchronized.
C. Everything in the ifs/data folder except the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
D. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder and the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
E. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder will be synchronized.
F. Everything in the ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO:19 For what reasons would you increase the default Ethernet frame MTU on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3.)
A. To match the frame size of the client system.
B. To improve overall performance.
C. To increase the LUN I/O performance.
D. There is no good reason to change the default Ethernet frame size. It is automatically optimized for
performance.
E. To provide easier trace captures.
700-070 dumps Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO:20 How do you enable anti-virus scanning service for an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Click Enable on the Anti-virus Summary page
B. Install an ICAP server
C. Configure all of the settings on the Anti-virus Summary page
D. Install an ICMP server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO:21 When setting a new disk pool protection level, what should the administrator do to apply the new
protection level to existing data? (Select the best answer.)
A. The administrator should run the isi protect command to apply the new protection level.
B. The administrator should run the isi migrate command to apply the new protection level.
C. Nothing. The cluster applies the new protection level automatically to existing data.
D. Nothing. You cannot apply new protection level settings until you complete an entire cluster reboot.
700-070 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO:22 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO:23 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
700-070 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO:24 What is the maximum number of nodes supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. 48
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
E. 144
Answer: E
QUESTION NO:25 What should you name the account that runs the Isilon for vCenter Plug-in? (Choose 1)
A. vapi
B. api
C. vCenter
D. vm
700-070 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO:26 What are versions of NFS are enabled by default in an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Versions 1 and 2
B. Versions 1, 2, and 3
C. Versions 2 and 3
D. Versions 3 and 4
E. Versions 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO:27 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
700-070 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO:28 Which of the following approaches focuses on cooperative rather than adversarial relationships with suppliers?
A. single sourcing
B. cross-functional teams
C. supply base management
D. supplier partnerships
Answer: D
QUESTION NO:29 Which of the following BEST defines negotiations?
A. reaching an agreement through discussion
B. maximizing one’s position over one’s opponent
C. reaching an agreement through competitive bidding
D. ensuring that the terms and conditions of a contract are met
700-070 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO:30 In a situation where the purchasing and production departments share responsibility for product fabrication, lead time for delivery of material, work schedules, and selection of sources of supply. Which responsibilities would be allocated to the production department? (Choose two.)
A. product fabrication
B. lead time for delivery of material
C. work schedules
D. selection of sources of supply
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO:31 When developing a new product with a supplier, which of the following documents protects a company from information leaks?
A. Copyright
B. Patent
C. Supplier partnership
D. Confidentiality agreement
700-070 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO:32 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. You are curious about the disadvantaged ownership of one of the companies that supply materials for KillTest .com. When, if ever, can you ask the supplier for this information?
A. At any time
B. Only when the buyer is purposefully seeking a minority supplier
C. Only when authorized by the courts
D. At no time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:33 If a purchasing manager is represented by buying an organization in a meeting with a governmental body. The manager could possibly embark in the following:
A. explaining the organization’s new MRP system
B. promoting the business to other participants
C. negotiating for the buying organization
D. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of various types of contractual arrangements
700-070 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO:34 Which of the following procedures for dealing with businesses that have social or economical disadvantages, if a purchasing manager considers: (Choose all that apply)
A. That the staff of such businesses may have had limited exposure to technical contract language
B. That exceptions may be needed to accommodate faster payment of invoices from such businesses
C. That goods or services of lower than usual quality may be accepted from such businesses
D. That such businesses may need information on the bidding process
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION NO:35 Choose two of the following options that are usually amongst the functions of the material manager of? (Choose two)
A. Stores and receiving
B. Quality control
C. Traffic management
D. Accounts payable
700-070 dumps Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO:36 With regard to decision-making capability of cross-functional sourcing teams which of the following is TRUE?
A. Better decisions than individuals.
B. Quick decisions than individuals.
C. Requiring the input of suppliers.
D. Poor substitute for individual decisions.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:37 Which software type is BEST applicable when using in the analysis of a competitive bid?
A. Application
B. Interface
C. Scientific
D. Operating system
700-070 pdf Answer: A

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Question No : 6  What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
300-070 exam Answer: C,D
Reference:
 Question No : 7 Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .
Answer: C
Question No : 8 Which two algorithms are valid to distribute calls in a route group (Choose two.)
A.broadcast
B.circular
C.top-down
D.bottom-up
E.round-robin
300-070 dumps Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 9  Where do you configure the region for a group of devices?
A. Common device profile.
B. Device defaults.
C. Common device configuration.
D. Common phone profile.
E. Device pool.
Answer: E
 Question No : 10 If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
300-070 pdf Answer: A
 Question No : 11  What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR
C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
Answer: A,E
 QUESTION 12
What are the methods to upload an RSP package? (Select 3)
A. tftp
B. scp
C. ftp
D. ssh
E. http
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 13
What command should you use to see the direct URL of a package?
A. show rsp slots
B. show rsp modules
C. show rsp platform
D. show rsp packages
E. show rsp vms
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have an existing Steelhead appliance deployment which is achieving excellent optimization at five sites. You have deployed a Steelhead appliance physically in-path at a new small branch office and all of  your applications have become slower for this new branch office only. What is the likely cause?
A. Incorrect in-path rules at the data-center
B. Incorrect in-path rules at the new branch office
C. Duplex mismatch between the new branch Steelhead and a connected device
D. Duplex mismatch between the data-center Steelhead and a connected device
E. Incorrect peering rules at the data-center
F. Incorrect peering rules at the new branch office
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
You have an existing Steelhead appliance deployment which is achieving excellent optimization at five sites. You have deployed a Steelhead appliance physically in-path at a new small branch office and many of the new branch office users’ applications are unoptimized; however some of the new branch office users’ access to the same applications are optimized. None of the Steelhead appliances are in admission control. What is the likely cause?
A. Duplex mismatch between the new branch office Steelhead and a connected device
B. Duplex mismatch between the data center Steelhead and a connected device
C. Network Asymmetry
D. WAN link disconnection
E. Overloaded servers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
An unwanted Steelhead appliance appears on the current connections list of one of your Steelhead appliances. How can you stop inbound connections from this unknown appliance from optimizing with your Steelhead appliances?
A. Create new peering rule(s) on your Steelhead appliances
B. Create new in-path rule(s) on your Steelhead appliance
C. Create IPSec tunnels between all of your Steelhead appliances
D. Reload all of your Steelhead appliances
E. Reload only the data center Steelhead appliance
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Log messages in the Steelhead appliance Management Console such as “error=SMB_SHUTDOWN_ERR_SEC_SIG_ENABLED” are an indication of what condition?
A. The Steelhead appliance has entered admission control
B. The Steelhead appliance has detected an asymmetric network
C. The Steelhead appliance is configured with the incorrect speed or duplex on the Primary interface
D. The Steelhead appliance is configured with the incorrect speed or duplex on of the in-path interfaces
E. The Steelhead appliance is configured in “Tunnel Mode”
F. The Steelhead appliance has detected Windows Server Message Block (SMB) signing
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 18
If a file is not optimized for more than one user at a time, this indicates:
A. Steelhead appliance has entered admission control
B. Steelhead appliance is configured with the incorrect speed or duplex on the Primary interface
C. Steelhead appliance is configured with the incorrect speed or duplex on of the in-path interfaces
D. Steelhead appliance is not able to acquire a “File Hold Key (FHK)”
E. Steelhead appliance is not able to acquire an “Opportunistic Lock (oplock)”
F. Steelhead appliance is not able to acquire a “Double Link (doulink)”
300-070  pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
With these default registry parameters, SMB signing is negotiated in the following manner. (Select 2)
A. SMB/CIFS exchanges between the Client/Workstation and the Member Server are not signed
B. SMB/CIFS exchanges between the Client/Workstation and the Member Server are always signed
C. SMB/CIFS exchanges between the Client/Workstation and the Domain Controller are not signed
D. SMB/CIFS exchanges between the Client/Workstation and the Domain Controller are always signed
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
A fat pipe is a network that can carry large amounts of data without significantly degrading transmission speed. If you have a fat pipe that is not being fully utilized and you are experiencing WAN congestion, latency, and packet loss as a result of the limitations of regular TCP, which of the following RiOS features will help? (Select 2)
A. Enable Forced Burst TCP (FB-TCP)
B. Enable HighSpeed TCP (HSTCP)
C. Disable admission control
D. Lower the Advanced Security Checkflow Parameter (ASCP)
E. Enable Maximum TCP (MX-TCP)
F. Enable disk encryption
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BE

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Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health. You verify the logs on several clients. You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points. You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health. Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.
070-243 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site. You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites. What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest. You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script. You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest. What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
070-243 dumps Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 13
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site. You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings. What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. All client computers are configured as WSUS clients. All of the client computers have Windows Firewall enabled. Windows Firewall is configured to block Fie and Printer Sharing.
Users are not configured as local Administrators on their client computers. You deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. You need to identify which methods you can use to deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the
client computers. Which client installation methods should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. A logon script installation
B. A manual client installation
C. A software update-based client installation
D. A Client Push Installation
E. An Active Directory Group Policy-based installation
070-243 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain.
The functional level of the domain is Server 2003.
The domain contains the following servers:
Ten servers that run Windows Server 2003
Twenty servers that run Windows Server 2008
One server that has Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 installed
One server that has System Center 2012 Configuration Manager installed
Users have mobile devices that run Windows Mobile 6.5 and Windows Phone.
You need to ensure that you can manage the settings of the mobile devices and perform remote device wipes by using Configuration Manager.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010. Configure an Exchange connector.
B. Change the functional level of the domain to windows 2008. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010.
C. Upgrade all Windows 2003 domain controllers to Windows 2008.
D. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows 2008 R2. Configure an Exchange connector.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager. Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
070-243 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers. All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed. App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder. All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc. You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension. After six months, you discover that some of the client computers fail to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files. You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory. You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data. The client computers report hardware inventory data. You confirm that Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers. You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue. Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log
070-243 exam Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION NO: 63
An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
LX0-101 exam Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 64
Which of the following is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg command?
A. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
B. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
LX0-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67
Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 68
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
LX0-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69
Tony works as a Software Developer for TechNet Inc. He creates a satellite assembly named SatAssembly1. He wants to install SatAssembly1 in the global assembly cache. Therefore, he compiles the assembly by using the Al.exe tool and signs SatAssembly1. Which of the following possible tools will Tony use to sign SatAssembly1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Installer tool
B. File Signing tool
C. .NET Services Installation tool
D. Strong Name tool
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 70
Georgina works as a Software Developer for BlueChip Inc. She develops an application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. The company wants her to deploy App1 to a customer’s laptop. Georgina creates an assembly named Assembly1 to be stored in the Global Assembly Cache so that the Common Language Runtime (CLR) can locate and bind Assembly1. As the application executes, the CLR locates the path of Assembly1 through the codebase setting. But, it finds no <codebase> element in the app.config file, and fails to bind Assembly1. Now, the CLR tries to locate Assembly1 through probing. Which of the following will the CLR check to locate
Assembly1? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Previously loaded assemblies
B. The application base or root directory
C. The Gacutil.exe tool in the Global Assembly Cache
D. Sub-directories in the application’s root directory
E. The culture attribute of the assembly
F. The correct version of the assembly
G. The assembly’s name
LX0-101 vce Answer: B,D,E,G
QUESTION NO: 71
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PGP
D. PPTP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
John works as a Web Developer for TechCom Inc. He creates an ASP.NET application, named MyApp1, using Visual Studio .NET. Only registered users of the company will be able to use the  application. The application contains a page, named NewAccount.aspx that allows new users to register themselves to the registered user list of the company. The NewAccount page contains several TextBox controls that accept users’ personal details such as username, password, confirm password, first name, last name, home address, zip code, phone number, etc. One of the TextBox
controls on the page is named txtZipCode in which a user enters a Zip code. John wants to ensure that when a user submits the NewAccount page, txtZipCode must contain five numeric digits. He wants least development effort. Which of the following validation controls will he use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. CompareValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. RangeValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
LX0-101 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 73
John works as a Software Developer for DawnStar Inc. He creates a class, named MyClass1. He wants to generate a key pair that he will use to give the compiled assembly a strong name. Which of the following tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Installutil.exe
B. Gacutil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Al.exe
LX0-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 74
Hannah works as a Programmer in a college of Information Technology. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. The Dean of the college wants to obtain the performance report of each student. Hannah develops an application named StudentPerformanceReport by using Visual C# .NET. This application uses a SQL Server database named Database1 and a stored procedure named PROC1. PROC1 executes a query  that returns the internal assessment result of each student. Hannah uses a TextBox control named AssessmentText in the application form named MyForm. She wants to display the total test result of each student in the AssessmentText text box control. StudentPerformanceReport uses a SqlCommand object to run PROC1. Hannah wants to write code to call PROC1. PROC1 contains an output parameter and displays its value as “@AssessmentResult” in text format. Which of the following code segments can Hannah use to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. AssessmentText.Text = comm.Parameters[“@AssessmentResult”].SourceColumn;
B. AssessmentText.Text = (string)comm.Parameters[“@AssessmentResult”].Value;
C. AssessmentText.Text = comm.Parameters[“@AssessmentResult”].Value.ToString();
D. AssessmentText.Text = comm.Parameters[“@AssessmentResult”].ToString();
Answer: B,C

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 14
Which of these statements is correct in regards to Fresnel zone and mesh network design? Choose all that apply.
A. Mesh network design does not need to account for Fresnel zone.
B. Fresnel zone clearance of at least 60% is required for mesh radio links.
C. Fresnel zone only comes into play when designing Wi-Fi client coverage.
D. Fresnel zone, Free Space Path Loss, EIRP and receive sensitivity are all factors that should be considered.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which statement is most correct and should be considered in a typical handheld client Wi-Fi access mesh design?
A. The upstream and downstream link budgets between clients and mesh routers are symmetrical.
B. Client devices typically broadcast at higher EIRP than mesh routers.
C. Client EIRP and receive sensitivity is generally the limiting factor for range.
D. Mesh backhaul links and client access should all be on the same channel to maximize connectivity.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What is the typical use for computing link budgets? Choose the most correct.
A. Determining attainable coverage.
B. Determining attainable range.
C. Determining the height to mount antennas.
D. Determining the proper aim of antennas.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which is the least important factor to consider when designing a mesh network?
A. which frequency of backhaul and access can be used
B. number of 3G towers in the area
C. power sources and grounding sources
D. usability of the site
E. available antenna
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of these following is recommended to assist in creating preliminary mesh designs and is used by the Aruba Outdoor Planner?
A. Google maps
B. Google Earth
C. MeshConfig
D. Network Stumbler
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of these identifies the folder(s) used to identify and process radio locations in the Aruba Outdoor
Planner?
A. Nodes
B. Portals
C. Locations
D. Routers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
When designing mesh links what SNR value should normally be considered the minimum for a robust link?
A. -20dBm
B. 20 dBm
C. 100 dBm
D. 10 dBm
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which of these statements is correct, concerning antenna selection in mesh network design? Choose all that apply.
A. Use of non Aruba-certified antennas could be in violation of regulatory domain certifications.
B. Antenna type and gain are important considerations; antennas should be chosen for specific purposes.
C. Almost any good quality antennas will function equivalently to an Aruba-certified antenna, as long as they are aimed correctly.
D. Specifying two SISO (Single Input Single Output) antennas is a recommended substitute for a MIMO antenna.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements represent good network design practice? Choose all that apply.
A. Maximum link redundancy should be a priority. Therefore, a good design should attempt to support as many mesh links as possible per radio.
B. A good design will attempt to create geographic and spectral diversity.
C. Specifying omni antennas for mesh links is a good way to create a high capacity mesh design.
D. An effective network design will employ a layered aggregation model.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
When specifying antennas in a mesh design, which of these statements is correct?
A. The latest MIMO antennas alleviate the need to consider antenna beam patterns.
B. Antenna height does not need to be taken into consideration.
C. Only horizontal beam width is important
D. Only vertical beam width is important
E. A good design will consider both horizontal and vertical beam patterns, as well as antenna heights and
target receiver heights.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 24
When designing a Wi-Fi client access network to provide coverage to handheld devices, which statement is most correct regarding antennas?
A. Specify antenna height to be as high as possible 20 meters or more, if possible
B. Specify antenna height to be as low as possible 1-2 meters, if possible
C. Specify antenna height to be about 6-8 meters.
D. If specifying an omnidirectional antenna, due to their 360-degree coverage, antenna height is not a consideration.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Following preliminary design done with Google Earth and the Aruba Outdoor Planner, which of the following is most correct?
A. Once the preliminary design is accepted, a final design and BoM should be created by adding a little “fudge factor”.
B. A site survey should be conducted to verify assumptions and gather additional data to formulate the final design and BoM
C. The customer should be expected to order based on the preliminary design and BoM.
D. Give the preliminary design to the customer with a disclaimer for possible inaccuracies
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
When determining a mesh design for Wi-Fi client access, what factors should be considered? Choose all that apply.
A. The band in which the clients operate.
B. The client device power and receive sensitivity.
C. The operating system type of the client.
D. The applications the clients will run.
E. The battery life of portable clients.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 27
The primary unique feature of the Aruba 3D Visualization for outdoor planning is as follows (choose best answer):
A. Ability to see effects of building and trees on the coverage
B. Ability to see the horizontal distance that an AP can cover
C. Ability to visualize the effects of antenna mounting elevation and mechanical downtilt on coverage
D. Ability to see real time heatmaps of deployed coverage
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Before adding placemarks into Google Earth to create an outdoor plan for Client Coverage, what information is helpful to have available?
A. Facility Location (Address or Lat/Lon) and plan (CAD drawing or map) showing available AP outdoor mounting locations.
B. Understanding of the required coverage areas, desired data rates, and services
C. Client Device info (power and typical antenna gain if available)
D. All of the Above
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following MUST be clearly defined in a project charter?
A. Quality
B. Scope
C. Action items
D. WBS
PK0-003 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between an open-ended and a close ended problem statement?
A. An open-ended problem statement leads to multiple solutions, while a close-ended one has limited solutions.
B. An open-ended problem statement has a low success rate, while a close-ended problem statement has a high success rate.
C. In open-ended problem statements, well defined resources cannot be allocated to the project, while a close-ended one allows for defined resources.
D. An open-ended problem statement expands the scope of the project, while a close-ended one keeps the project in scope.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A project team member, Joe, has completed his project work. Although the project is not completed yet, Joe has been assigned by the PMO director to a new project. Which of the following describes the organization structure Joe works in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Project based
D. Strong Matrix
PK0-003 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is used to provide a functional description of the efforts which are required in order to accomplish a task?
A. Gantt chart
B. PERT
C. GERT
D. WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical Path
D. PERT chart
PK0-003 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may
not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to
show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
PK0-003 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
PK0-003 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to a full stop due to the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.
D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance
report.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
PK0-003 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
While performing a scheduled walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy. Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A project team member has identified a required change to one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
PK0-003 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A

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[100% Free] Help To Pass Recenty Updated Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT PDF Preparation Materials With Accurate Answers

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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200-155 Dumps

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QUESTION NO 24.How does the HP Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA) family increase a company’s operational efficiency? Select TWO.
A.Simplified management reduces IT staff costs.
B.Redeployability allows tomorrow’s systems to run on today’s machines.
C.Dedicated staff works with company employees to optimize the storage system.
D.The ability to run different operating systems on the same machines reduces the need for redundant hardware.
E.Storage consolidation increases capacity utilization of the storage system.
200-155 exam Correct:A E
QUESTION NO 25.Which function provides investment protection for a customer who has recently invested in HP
Integrity servers?
A.consolidated management of the IT infrastructure
B.greater range of data protection options
C.processing power of 64-bit processors
D.support for multiple operating systems
Correct:D
QUESTION NO 26.Click the Task button. Match the support solution with the service it provides.
200-155 dumps Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
QUESTION NO 27.HP is positioned between which main competitors in the enterprise market? Select TWO.
A.Fujitsu
B.Dell
C.Sun
D.EMC
E.IBM
Correct:B E
QUESTION NO: 28
When configuring iSCSI attached storage devices on the application server, application server called the target device, a storage device called the Launcher.
A. True
B. False
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
SATA argument about the correct yes:
A. ATA to SATA transition from serial to parallel shift.
B. ATA to SATA transition from parallel to serial shift
C. SATA and ATA command set used in a completely different set of instructions.
D. The above statement is not correct.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
What NAS to meet the needs of users: (Choose three)
A. Unstructured data growth demands
B. Data sharing needs
C. FC networking support
D. Multi-protocol support requirements
200-155 vce Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 31
FC-SAN Direct Connect network, the connection between the host and storage via HBA card
advantage of this networking is simple, economical, easy to host shared storage resources.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
SAN storage systems, real-time monitoring disk status, the suspected faulty disk data migration to
hot spare disk is called:
A. Reconstruction
B. Reconstruction
C. Disk pre-copy
D. Disk Sleep
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
S2600 system, or do before creating RAID configuration before other initialization is required to
ensure that the two power modules are switched on, otherwise it cannot be the key configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Hard disk average seek time is usually the average access time, and average latency and.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
After installing UltraPath for Linux, UltraPath for Linux can be found in the User Guide which
catalog:
A. / opt / UltraPath
B. / etc / init.d / UltraPath
C. / bin / UltraPath
D. / bin / UltraPath / doc
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
RAID1 usually called mirroring, half of the members could theoretically damage the hard disk, but
the data may not be lost.
A. True
B. False
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Principles SAN storage array cable laying which of the following is correct. (Choose three)
A. Cable laying shall facilitate maintenance and future expansion
B. Cables should be uniform smooth cornering
C. When installed in a cabinet,the fiber should be set into the bellows
D. If Chutes, ladders should be erected on top of the cabinet line
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 38
You can view the initiator node name on the label under which the windows of the initiator software interface
A. discovery
B. general
C. target
D. None of the above comments
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
When you create a batch LUN, the LUN is created out which parameters are the same: (Choose
three)
A. Name of the LUN
B. Slitting depth of the LUN
C. LUN ownership Controller
D. Write Policy
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 40
The main hard drive interface types are there? (Choose three)
A. iSCSI
B. SATA
C. SAS
D. FC
200-155 exam Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 41
Have the ability to protect data redundancy RAID level is: (Choose three)
A. RAID6
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 50
D. RAID1
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Huawei is mapped to the common disk array storage space used by the host cell is called (), which is based on logical space created on the RAID.
A. LUN (Logic Unit Number)
B. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks)
C. Hard disk
D. Disk Arrays
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 43
Failover feature multi-path refers to the main path when the fault automatically discharged or
repair the I / O path from the transmission path from the switch back to the main path.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
When you install the Windows operating system, multi-path software is generally due to a blue screen:
A. Killing caused by antivirus software
B. Once the software is installed too many paths
C. When the installation is not super- user privileges by user
D. Windows operating system patch is not installed SP1/SP2
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
In S5000T storage system, the same LUN simultaneously mapped to multiple hosts, this
statement is correct.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Application Server using iSCSI protocol to connect storage devices, which the adapter can be
used? (Choose three)
A. Ethernet cards
B. iSCSI-HBA card
C. TOE NIC
D. FC-HBA card
200-155 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 47
SuSE Linux 10 how to see the FC HBA WWN information:
A. # Cat / sys / class / fc_host / host * / port_name
B. # Cat / proc / scsi / fc_host / host * / port_name
C. # Cat / dev / scsi / fc_host / host * / port_name
D. # Cat / etc / init.d / fc_host / host * / port_name
Answer: A

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