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QUESTION 1 A fabric interconnect fails to start and the console displays the loader prompt. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A. Load an uncorrupt bootloader image. B. Load an uncorrupt kickstart image. C. Reconnect L1/L2 cables between the Fis. D. Reformat the fabric interconnect. E. Load the correct version of the boot image. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2 An engineer is troubleshooting a custom AV pair that was created by a client on an external authentication server to map a read-only role for a specific security domain. Which AV pair solves the problem? A. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1//Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 B. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Write_Role_1|Read_Role_2 C. shell=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 D. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager is being upgraded using the Auto Install feature, but the FSM fails. Which action resolves the issue? A. Acknowledge the primary fabric interconnect. B. Remove the service pack from the subordinate fabric interconnect. C. Clear the startup version of the default infrastructure pack. D. Upgrade the firmware of the infrastructure firmware by using the force option. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to bind the Ethernet interface to vFC fails. Which action resolves the issue? A. Add the FCoE VLAN to the allowed VLAN list. B. Configure the FCoE VLAN that corresponds to the vFC VSAN as a private VLAN. C. Configure the interface as a trunk port. D. Configure the interface to use the native VLAN of the trunk port. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Interface fc1/5 is offline. Which action should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? A. Activate the correct zoneset for VSAN 100. B. Update the FLOGI database to contain the FLOGI entries for interface fc1/5 in VSAN 100. C. Update the FCNs database to contain names for VSAN 100. D. Configure the upstream ports and the server ports to be in VSAN 100. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. A remote device connected to fc 1/2 fails to come online. Which do you configure to resolve the issue?
A. remote and local ports to be in the correct VSAN B. local switch for NPV C. remote device for NPIV D. port on remote device as an f-port-channel Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the WWPNs on the left to the correct zones on the right.
QUESTION 8 A network administrator attempts to install an application in the Cisco NX-OS Guest shell and receives an error that there is not enough space on the disk. Which command must the administrator run to increase the disk space available in the Guest shell? A. guestshell growdisk rootfs [size-in-MB] B. guestshell pvextend rootfs [size-in-MB] C. guestshell resize rootfs [size-in-MB] D. guestshell resize2fs rootfs [size-in-MB] Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF adjacency between Router-A and Router-B cannot reach the FULL state. Which action resolves the issue? A. Adjust the MTU on Router-A to 1600. B. Disable the check of the MTU value. C. Set the OSPF media type to point-to-point. D. Adjust the MTU on Router-B to 1604. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 A customer configures HSRP between two data centers that are interconnected with OTV. The configuration succeeds, but traffic between two ESXi virtual hosts on the same site is routed suboptimally through the OTV overlay. Which two actions optimize the traffic? (Choose two.) A. Disable first-hop redundancy. B. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the OTV edge devices. C. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the ESXi vSwitch. D. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the ESXi vSwitch. E. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the OTV edge devices. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the actions from the left onto the faults that they resolve on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. vPC between switch1 and switch2 is not working. Which two actions are needed to fix the problem? (Choose two.) A. Match vPC domain ID between the two devices. B. Configure IP address on the interface. C. Activate VLANs on the vPC. D. Configure vPC peer link and vPC peer keepalive correctly. E. Configure one of the switches as primary for the vPC. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 You must troubleshoot an issue with DAI on a Cisco Nexus switch. Drag and drop the DAI configuration steps from the left into the order they must be implemented in on the right.
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QUESTION 1 Which Splunk component consolidates the individual results and prepares reports in a distributed environment? A. Indexers B. Forwarder C. Search head D. Search peers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 When configuring HTTP Event Collector (HEC) input, how would one ensure the events have been indexed? A. Enable indexer acknowledgment. B. Enable forwarder acknowledgment. C. splunk check-integrity -index D. index=_internal component=ACK | stats count by host Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 3 After how many warnings within a rolling 30-day period will a license violation occur with an enforced Enterprise license? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 Which Splunk forwarder type allows parsing of data before forwarding to an indexer? A. Universal forwarder B. Parsing forwarder C. Heavy forwarder D. Advanced forwarder Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is a valid distribution search group? A)
A. option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 How is a remote monitor input distributed to forwarders? A. As an app. B. As a forward.conf file. C. As a monitor.conf file. D. As a forwarder monitor profile. Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 7 Which of the following statements accurately describes using SSL to secure the feed from a forwarder? A. It does not encrypt the certificate password. B. SSL automatically compresses the feed by default. C. It requires that the forwarder be set to compressed=true. D. It requires that the receiver be set to compression=true. Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 8 In which scenario would a Splunk Administrator want to enable a data integrity check when creating an index? A. To ensure that hot buckets are still open for writes and have not been forced to roll to a cold state B. To ensure that configuration files have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes C. To ensure that user passwords have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes. D. To ensure that data has not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the correct order of steps in Duo Multifactor Authentication? A. 1 Request Login 2. Connect to SAML server 3 Duo MFA 4 Create User session 5 Authentication Granted 6. Log into Splunk B. 1. Request Login 2 Duo MFA 3. Authentication Granted 4 Connect to SAML server 5. Log into Splunk 6. Create User session C. 1 Request Login 2 Check authentication / group mapping 3 Authentication Granted 4. Duo MFA 5. Create User session 6. Log into Splunk D. 1 Request Login 2 Duo MFA 3. Check authentication / group mapping 4 Create User session 5. Authentication Granted 6 Log into Splunk Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which Splunk indexer operating system platform is supported when sending logs from a Windows universal forwarder? A. Any OS platform B. Linux platform only C. Windows platform only. D. None of the above. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which feature in Splunk allows Event Breaking, Timestamp extractions, and any advanced configurations found in props.conf to be validated all through the UI? A. Apps B. Search C. Data preview D. Forwarder inputs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following enables compression for universal forwarders in outputs. conf ? A)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which setting in indexes. conf allows data retention to be controlled by time? A. maxDaysToKeep B. moveToFrozenAfter C. maxDataRetentionTime D. frozenTimePeriodlnSecs Correct Answer: D click here
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following will mitigate the risk of users who have access to an instance modifying the system configurations? A. Implement whole-disk encryption B. Deploy the latest OS patches C. Deploy an anti-malware solution D. Implement mandatory access control Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A company has decided to get multiple compliance and security certifications for its public cloud environment. However, the company has few staff members to handle the extra workload, and it has limited knowledge of the current infrastructure. Which of the following will help the company meet the compliance requirements as quickly as possible? A. DLP B. CASB C. FIM D. NAC Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An organization is hosting a DNS domain with private and public IP ranges. Which of the following should be implemented to achieve ease of management? A. Network peering B. A CDN solution C. A SDN solution D. An IPAM solution Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.infoblox.com/glossary/ipam-ip-address-management/
QUESTION 4 A systems administrator wants to have near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between an application server and its clients on the Internet. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement to achieve this objective? A. A stateful firewall B. DLP C. DNSSEC D. Network flows Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 The security team for a large corporation is investigating a data breach. The team members are all trying to do the same tasks but are interfering with each other\\’s work. Which of the following did the team MOST likely forget to implement? A. Incident type categories B. A calling tree C. Change management D. Roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A cloud administrator needs to implement a mechanism to monitor the expense of the company\\’s cloud resources. Which of the following is the BEST option to execute this task with minimal effort? A. Ask the cloud provider to send a daily expense report B. Set custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds C. Use the API to collect expense information from cloud resources D. Implement a financial tool to monitor cloud resource expenses Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 An organization has multiple VLANs configured to segregate the network traffic. Following is the breakdown of the network segmentation: 1. Production traffic (10.10.0.0/24) 2. Network backup (10.20.0.0/25) 3. Virtual IP network (10.20.0.128/25) The following configuration exists on the server:
QUESTION 9 An IaaS provider has numerous devices and services that are commissioned and decommissioned automatically on an ongoing basis. The cloud administrator needs to implement a solution that will help reduce administrative overhead. Which of the following will accomplish this task? A. IPAM B. NAC C. NTP D. DNS Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.infoblox.com/glossary/ipam-ip-address-management/
QUESTION 10 A cloud administrator is reviewing a new application implementation document. The administrator needs to make sure all the known bugs and fixes are applied, and unwanted ports and services are disabled. Which of the following techniques would BEST help the administrator assess these business requirements? A. Performance testing B. Usability testing C. Vulnerability testing D. Regression testing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A systems administrator is provisioning VMs in a cloud environment and has been told to select an OS build with the furthest end-of-life date. Which of the following OS builds would be BEST for the systems administrator to use? A. Open-source B. LTS C. Canary D. Beta E. Stable Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12 A cloud engineer is responsible for managing two cloud environments from different MSPs. The security department would like to inspect all traffic from the two cloud environments. Which of the following network topology solutions should the cloud engineer implement to reduce long-term maintenance? A. Chain B. Star C. Mesh D. Hub and spoke Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Company A has acquired Company B and is in the process of integrating their cloud resources. Company B needs access to Company A\\’s cloud resources while retaining its IAM solution. Which of the following should be implemented? A. Multifactor authentication B. Single sign-on C. Identity federation D. Directory service Correct Answer: C Reference: https://medium.com/@dinika.15/identity-federation-a-brief-introduction-f2f823f8795a
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Microsoft Role-based MS-600 Exam Dumps Practice Test
QUESTION 1 You are building a Microsoft Outlook Web Add-in. You need to persist user preferences between devices by using the minimum amount of development effort. Which API should you use? A. the Microsoft Graph API B. the REST API for the Blob service C. the JavaScript API for Microsoft Office D. the Table service REST API Correct Answer: C You can persist add-in state and settings with the JavaScript API for Office. The JavaScript API for Office provides the Settings, RoamingSettings, and CustomProperties objects for saving add-in state across sessions Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/develop/persisting-add-in-state-and-settings
QUESTION 2 You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you use? A. authorization code B. refresh token C. resource owner password D. device code Correct Answer: A In webserver apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session a cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.
In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this case, the webserver app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0 authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types
QUESTION 3 You are building email notifications for an expensing system. When a user receives an email notification, the email will contain a comment field. When the user submits a comment, the data will be returned to the expensing system for processing. What should you do to implement the notification by using the minimum amount of development effort? A. Create a Microsoft Office Add-in that has an action pane to display the notifications B. Leverage Microsoft Graph notifications C. Leverage the Azure SignalR Service and implement web notifications D. Configure the expensing system to send actionable messages Correct Answer: D Whether you are filling out a survey, approving an expense report, or updating a CRM sales opportunity, Actionable Messages enable you to take quick actions right from within Outlook. Developers can now embed actions in their emails or notifications, elevating user engagement with their services, and increasing organizational productivity. Office 365 provides two solutions to enhance productivity with Outlook Actionable Messages: actionable messages via email and actionable messages via Office 365 Connectors. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook/actionable-messages/
QUESTION 4 You are developing an application that will run as an overnight background service on a server. The service will access web-hosted resources by using the application\\’s identity and the OAuth 2.0 client credentials grant flow. You register the application and grant permissions. The tenant administrator grants admin consent to the application. You need to get the access token from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Which URI should you use for the POST request? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Oauth2 client_id client_secret The authorization code flow begins with the client directing the user to the /authorize endpoint. Box 1: token Use the authorization code to request an access token. Now that you\\’ve acquired an authorization code and have been granted permission by the user, you can redeem the code for an access token to the desired resource, by sending a POST request to the /token endpoint: Box 2: authorization_code Use the authorization code to request an access token. Example: // Line breaks for legibility only POST /{tenant}/oauth2/token HTTP/1.1 Host: https://login.microsoftonline.com Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded grant_type=authorization_code …etc. Note: At a high level, the entire authorization flow for an application looks a bit like this:
QUESTION 5 You have a line-of-business API that is secured by using the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You deploy a solution to the app catalog. The solution requests permission to the API. What should you do in the SharePoint admin center to ensure that the solution can access the API? A. Create a SharePoint security group and add the solution B. Create an access policy C. Enable sandbox solutions D. Approve a pending permission request Correct Answer: D Developers building a SharePoint Framework solution that requires access to specific resources secured with Azure AD list these resources along with the required permission scopes in the solution manifest. When deploying the solution package to the app catalog, SharePoint creates permission requests and prompts the administrator to manage the requested permissions. For each requested permission, tenant administrators can decide whether they want to grant or deny the specific permission. All permissions are granted to the whole tenant and not to a specific application that has requested them. When the tenant administrator grants specific permission, it is added to the SharePoint Online Client Extensibility Azure AD application, which is provisioned by Microsoft in every Azure AD and which is used by the SharePoint Framework in the OAuth flow to provide solutions with valid access tokens.
QUESTION 6 Which tool can you use to generate a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution? A. Eclipse B. App Studio C. Yacc D. Yeoman Correct Answer: D Yeoman helps you to kickstart new projects, prescribing best practices and tools to help you stay productive. Using the Yeoman SharePoint generator, developers are able to scaffold new client-side solution projects to build, package, and deploy SharePoint solutions. The generator provides common build tools, boilerplate code, and a common playground website to host web parts for testing. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/toolchain/scaffolding-projects-using-yeomansharepoint-generator
QUESTION 7 You plan to deploy a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution to the tenant app catalog. Which attribute should you configure in the package-solution.json file to ensure that the solution is available immediately to all site collections? A. skipFeatureDeployment B. zipped package C. ClientSideComponentId D. isDomainIsolated Correct Answer: A You can configure your SharePoint Framework components to be immediately available across the tenant when the the solution package is installed in the tenant app catalog. This can be configured by using the skipFeatureDeployment the attribute in the package-solution.json file. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/tenant-scoped-deployment
QUESTION 8 You plan to develop a Microsoft Teams bot tghat will return product information to users by using an adaptive card. You need to card to contain a button that will invoke a web search for the product. What should use? A. An action-based messaging extension B. A task module C. A search-based messaging extension D. An outgoing webhook Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 What should you add to a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution to ensure that the solution can be used as a Microsoft Teams tab? A. the TeamsTab value to the component type property in the manifest file B. a manifest file to the Teams folder in the solution C. the TeamsTab value to the supported hosts property in the manifest file D. a manifest file to the web parts folder in the solution Correct Answer: D You need to update the web part manifest to make it available for Microsoft Teams. Locate the manifest JSON file for the web part you want to make available to Teams and modify the supported host’s properties to include “TeamsTab”. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-as-ms-teamstab
QUESTION 12 You are developing a human resources application that will show users where they are in their company\\’s organization chart. You are adding a new feature that will display the name of a user\\’s manager inside the application. You need to create a REST query to retrieve the information. The solution must minimize the amount of data retrieved. Which query should you use? A. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/manager?$select=displayName B. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/people?$filter=jobTitle eq \\’manager\\’and$select=displayName C. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/contacts?$filter=jobTitle eq \\’manager\\’ D. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/manager Correct Answer: A Get user\\’s manager. Returns the user or organizational contact assigned as the user\\’s manager. Syntax: GET /me/manager GET /users/{id | userPrincipalName}/manager Only the name of the user\\’s manager should be displayed so we use ?select=displayname To specify a different set of properties to return than the default set provided by the Graph, use the $select query option. The $select option allows for choosing a subset or superset of the default set returned. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/user-list-managerhttps://developer.microsoft.com/enus/graph/docs/overview/query_parameters
QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT You are developing a single page application (SPA) named App1 that will be used by the public. Many users of App1 restrict pop-up windows from opening in their browser. You need to authenticate the users by using the Microsoft identity platform. The solution must meet the following requirements: * Ensure that App1 can read the profile of a user. * Minimize user interaction during authentication. * Prevent App1 from requiring admin consent for any permissions. How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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What is Role-Based Access Control?
Azure role-based access control (Azure RBAC) is a system that provides fine-grained access management of Azure resources.
We may have confusion between two terms – Azure AD roles and Azure role-based access control in Azure.
Difference:
Azure AD roles are used to manage access to Azure AD resources
Azure roles are used to manage access to Azure resources.
How Does Azure RBAC work?
RBAC manages who can access Azure resources, what areas they can access, and what they can do with these resources. Azure RBAC allocation consists of three main components: defining scope, defining roles, and assigning security principals. For the first time using Azure RBAC, I recommend that you use the Azure portal, although it can also be configured through Azure PowerShell and Azure CLI.
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These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!
Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam
Vendor: Microsoft Certifications: Windows Server 2012 Exam Code: 70-410 Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 Total Questions: 503 Q&As Updated on: Feb 17, 2017 Exam Information：https://www.passitdump.com/70-410.html
Install and configure servers (15–20%)
Install servers
Configure servers
Configure local storage
Configure server roles and features (15–20%)
Configure file and share access
Configure print and document services
Configure servers for remote management
Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)
Create and configure virtual machine settings
Create and configure virtual machine storage
reate and configure virtual networks
Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
Deploy and configure DNS service
Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)
Install domain controllers
Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)
Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)
Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
Configure security policies
Configure application restriction policies
Configure Windows Firewall
QUESTION 9 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization Correct Answer: G QUESTION 15 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.
In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet Correct Answer: B
70-410 PDF: STUDY PLAN
Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.
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Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.
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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers 70-532 Dumps Tests Detail: Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
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Skills Measured
This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.
NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
C. IIS logs
D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps
F. Application logs
Answer: D,E
NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B 400-101 vce
NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:
NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
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Exam Code: 70-463 exam
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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70-463 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2016-10-31
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NO.1 You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3
Slowly Changing
Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Data Conversion component
B. an Expression task
C. a Merge component
D. an Execute SQL task that executes a MERGE statement on the database
Answer: C 100-105 vce
NO.2 You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. This model is used to store a
master list of products.
An attribute must be added to the Product entity to define the sales manager responsible for each
product.
You need to create an attribute in the Product entity that prevents users from entering invalid sales
manager values.
Which type of attribute should you create?
A. Explicit
B. User-defined
C. Derived
D. Recursive
E. Domain-based
F. Parent
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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157
Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-243 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 10 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health. You verify the logs on several clients. You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points. You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health. Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following day’s interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped. 070-243 exam Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 11 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site. You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites. What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest. You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script. You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest.What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery. 70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ABCE QUESTION 13 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site. You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings. What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14 Your network contains a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. All client computers are configured as WSUS clients. All of the client computers have the Windows Firewall enabled. Windows Firewall is configured to block Fie and Printer Sharing.
Users are not configured as local Administrators on their client computers. You deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. You need to identify which methods you can use to deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the
client computers. Which client installation methods should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A logon script installation
B. A manual client installation
C. A software update-based client installation
D. A Client Push Installation
E. An Active Directory Group Policy-based installation 070-243 pdf Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 15 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain.
The functional level of the domain is Server 2003.
The domain contains the following servers:
Ten servers that run Windows Server 2003
Twenty servers that run Windows Server 2008
One server that has Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 installed One server that has System Center 2012 Configuration Manager installed
Users have mobile devices that run Windows Mobile 6.5 and Windows Phone.
You need to ensure that you can manage the settings of the mobile devices and perform remote device wipes by using Configuration Manager.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010. Configure an Exchange connector.
B. Change the functional level of the domain to windows 2008. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010.
C. Upgrade all Windows 2003 domain controllers to Windows 2008.
D. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows 2008 R2. Configure an Exchange connector. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager. Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings 070-243 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers. All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed. App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder. All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc. You configure the Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension. After six months, you discover that some of the client computers fail to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files. You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable the Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data. The client computers report hardware inventory data. You confirm that the Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers. You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue. Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log 070-243 exam Correct Answer: ACD
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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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NO.1 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table: One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Perform a page restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Answer: F
Explanation: 300-207 dumps
To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.
NO.2 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the VARBINARY data type.
B. Use the CAST function.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use the DATETIME data type.
E. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
F. Use a user-defined table type.
G. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
H. Use an appropriate collation.
I. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
J. Use the DATE data type.
Answer: C
NO.3 You have recently removed a SQL 2012 Database Engine instance from a computer running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Prior to the removal of the instance, you had configured
affinity so that the default instance used CPU 0 and 1 and the second instance used CPU 2 and 3. You want to ensure that the default instance can use all processors available to the host.
Which of the following commands would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = AUTO
B. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,4
C. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,1
D. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 2,3
Answer: A
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