How can I pass the Microsoft AZ-300 Exam in 2020 with easy method?

Pass the Microsoft AZ-300 exam by following these steps. You can pass the test in a simple way.

  1. Read the official Microsoft AZ-300 exam information
  2. Studying AZ-300 Exam Topics
  3. Practice Online AZ-300 Dumps

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Azure Solutions Architect Expert：Microsoft AZ-300 exam

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-300

! You will be able to take this exam until it retires on July 28, 2020.

  • Deploy and configure infrastructure (40-45%)
  • Implement workloads and security (25-30%)
  • Create and deploy apps (5-10%)
  • Implement authentication and secure data (5-10%)
  • Develop for the cloud and for Azure storage (15-20%)

A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-303

You may also be interested in other Microsoft exams.

Latest Microsoft AZ-300 Practice Test Online

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-3
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to deploy an Azure load balancer named ib1016 to your Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Support the load balancing of IP traffic from the Internet to Azure virtual machines connected to VNET1016\subnet0.
Provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99,99 percent availability for the Azure virtual machines.
Minimize Azure-related costs.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
To complete this task, you do NOT need to wait for the deployment to complete. Once the deployment starts in Azure,
you can move to the next task.
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure
networking infrastructure.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q2-2

Once the VNets are peered, all resources on one VNet can communicate with resources on the other peered VNets.
You plan to enable peering between Paris-VNet and AllOffices-VNet. Therefore VMs on Subnet1, which is on ParisVNet and VMs on Subnet3, which is on AllOffices-VNet will be able to connect to each other.
All Azure resources connected to a VNet have outbound connectivity to the Internet by default. Therefore VMs on
ClientSubnet, which is on ClientResources-VNet will have access to the Internet; and VMs on Subnet3 and Subnet4,
which are on AllOffices-VNet will have access to the Internet.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/networking/networking-overview#internet-connectivity

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contosodoud.onmicrosoft.com.
Your company has a public DNS zone for contoso.com.
You add contoso.com as a custom domain name to Azure AD
You need to ensure that Azure can verify the domain name.
Which type of DNS record should you create?
A. PTR
B. TXT
C. NSEC3
D. DNSKEY
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Backup data to local disks and use the Azure Import/Export service to send backups to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5

In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The
adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-3

Box 1: No
Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private
zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though.
Box 2: No
Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual
networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network.
Box 3: Yes
VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone.
By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against
the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of
10.0.0.0/16 and contains the subnets in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6

Subnet1 contains a virtual appliance named VM1 that operates as a router.
You create a routing table named RT1.
You need to route all inbound traffic to VNet1 through VM1.
How should you configure RT1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6-3

QUESTION 7
You are developing a web app that uses a REST interface to connect to Azure Storage with HTTPS. This app uploads
and streams video content that can be accessed from anywhere in the world.
You have different storage requirements for each part of the app. A hierarchical namespace must be created.
Which storage services should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate services to the correct actions. Each
service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment.
While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and
paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to host several secured websites on Web01.
You need to allow HTTPS over TCP port 443 to Web01 and to prevent HTTP over TCP port 80 to Web01.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer: See below.
You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A
network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from,
several types of Azure resources.
A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from, several types of Azure resources.
A2. Select Create.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-4

Step A: Create a network security group
A1. Search for and select the resource group for the VM, choose Add, then search for and select Network security
group.
The Create network security group window opens.
A3. Create a network security group
Enter a name for your network security group.
Select or create a resource group, then select a location.
A4. Select Create to create the network security group.
Step B: Create an inbound security rule to allows HTTPS over TCP port 443
B1. Select your new network security group.
B2. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B3. Add inbound rule
B4. Select Advanced.
From the drop-down menu, select HTTPS.
You can also verify by clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 443.
B5. Select Add to create the rule.
Repeat step B2-B5 to deny TCP port 80
B6. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B7. Add inbound rule
B8. Select Advanced.
Clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 80.
B9. Select Deny.
Step C: Associate your network security group with a subnet
Your final step is to associate your network security group with a subnet or a specific network interface.
C1. In the Search resources, services, and docs box at the top of the portal, begin typing Web01. When the Web01 VM
appears in the search results, select it.
C2. Under SETTINGS, select Networking. Select Configure the application security groups, select the Security Group
you created in Step A, and then select Save, as shown in the following picture:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-filter-network-traffic

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the connection requirements for the New York office.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-2

Box 1: Create a virtual network gateway and a local network gateway.
Azure VPN gateway. The VPN gateway service enables you to connect the VNet to the on-premises network through a
VPN appliance. For more information, see Connect an on-premises network to a Microsoft Azure virtual network. The
VPN gateway includes the following elements:
Virtual network gateway. A resource that provides a virtual VPN appliance for the VNet. It is responsible for routing
traffic from the on-premises network to the VNet.
Local network gateway. An abstraction of the on-premises VPN appliance. Network traffic from the cloud application to
the on-premises network is routed through this gateway.
Connection. The connection has properties that specify the connection type (IPSec) and the key shared with the onpremises VPN appliance to encrypt traffic.
Gateway subnet. The virtual network gateway is held in its own subnet, which is subject to various requirements,described in the Recommendations section below.
Box 2: Configure a site-to-site VPN connection
On premises create a site-to-site connection for the virtual network gateway and the local network gateway.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-3

Scenario: Connect the New York office to VNet1 over the Internet by using an encrypted connection.
Incorrect Answers:
Azure ExpressRoute: Established between your network and Azure, through an ExpressRoute partner. This connection
is private. Traffic does not go over the internet.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/vpn

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to create 100 Azure virtual machines on each of the following three virtual networks:
-VNET1005a
-VNET1005b
-VNET1005c All the network traffic between the three virtual networks will be routed through VNET1005a. You need to
create the virtual networks, and then to ensure that all the Azure virtual machines can connect to other virtual machines
by using their private IP address. The solutions must NOT require any virtual gateways and must minimize
the number of peerings.
What should you do from the Azure portal before you configuring IP routing?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits.
How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct
locations. Each Configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q11-2

Azure compute services, namely virtual machines (IaaS) and cloud services (PaaS), that are deployed within a virtual
network can be connected through the private peering domain. The private peering domain is considered to be a trusted
extension of your core network into Microsoft Azure.
Services such as Azure Storage, SQL databases, and Websites are offered on public IP addresses. You can privately
connect to services hosted on public IP addresses, including VIPs of your cloud services, through the public peering
routing domain. You can connect the public peering domain to your DMZ and connect to all Azure services on their
public IP addresses from your WAN without having to connect through the internet.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-circuit-peerings

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share.
Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter
image.
You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components
installed.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upload a configuration script.
B. Create an automation account.
C. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
D. Create an Azure policy.
E. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
Correct Answer: CE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template

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MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
  • Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
  • Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
  • Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

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Microsoft MB-900 exam questions，latest and accurate practice test

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing
cases and knowledge articles.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You need to use the appropriate applications to meet requirements.
Which applications should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate applications to the correct requirements. Each
application may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You operate a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement environment.
You need to determine the security types used to secure different resources.
Which security type is used for each capability? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Match each application to its Dynamics 365 licensing plan.
To answer, drag the appropriate licensing plan from the column on left to its application on the right. Each licensing plan
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
You need to identify the benefits of Microsoft Azure cloud-based installations. What are two benefits? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. disaster recovery planning
B. ability to easily scale for increased growth
C. business continuity
D. ability to adhere to static cost requirements
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
A company is preparing to implement a cloud-based environment.
You need to inform management about the different types of cloud.
Which three service components are available for infrastructure as a service (IaaS)? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. network security
B. operating systems
C. data center
D. servers and storage
E. hosted applications
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator integrating Microsoft SharePoint on-premises and Dynamics 365 Customer
Engagement in the cloud. Which technology should you use for this type of integration?
A. private cloud
B. software as a service (SaaS)
C. public cloud
D. hybrid cloud
E. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You need to choose the appropriate type of Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement solution for each scenario.
Which solution types should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct scenarios. Each
solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft Azure services are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Active Directory
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Azure Machine Learning
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Microsoft Power BI
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
You run Dynamics 365 and line-of-business applications on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. Due
to compliance regulations, Dynamic 365 Finance and Operations data must remain on-premises. You migrate all
managed solutions and Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement data to Dynamics 365 in the cloud.
You need to determine which cloud service deployment model is being used.
Which type of cloud service model is being used?
A. Microsoft Azure Virtual Machine deployment
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. hybrid deployment
D. software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are determining whether to deploy Dynamics 365 for Retail or Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to identify the capabilities of each application.
Which capabilities does each application support? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/de-de/dynamics365/unified-operations/retail/dev-itpro/choose-deployment

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Match each response time to its level for Dynamics 365. To answer, drag the appropriate level from the column on the
lest to its response time on the right. Each level may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You operate a Dynamics 365 online environment.
You need to determine the appropriate release type for different audiences and supportability.
Which release types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q13-2

Refer to the following resources to pass the MB-900 exam:

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  5. Video learning

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EMC Other Certification DES-6332 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
How is the VMware HCIA Management role associated with a user in vCenter after the VxRail system has been
deployed?
A. Assign the role directly to the user at the object level
B. Add user to HCIA Management group
C. Import the role to the user from VxRail Manager
D. User is automatically added to the role when created
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The VxRail administrator has been given the task of migrating the current production environment to a VxRail cluster
with external block storage. The VMs must remain online during the migration.
Which VMware feature can be used?
A. Storage vMotion
B. vMotion
C. VMware Converter Software
D. High Availability
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Use of what network configuration is considered a best practice for VxRail clusters?
A. Traffic segmentation with VLANs
B. Available Production Ports
C. Available Management Ports
D. IPv6 Multicast
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which VxRail model is a 1U form factor per node?
A. E Series
B. P Series
C. S Series
D. G Series
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A VxRail is experiencing issues The administrator decides to contact Dell EMC Support.
Where in VxRail Manager can the administrator generate information needed for the support call?
A. Config > Generate Support Bundle
B. Health > General > Generate Support Bundle
C. Support > Generate New Log Bundle
D. Config > General > Generate New Log Bundle
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
In a VxRail appliance, what does vSAN use in the form of flexible data containers to store and manage data?
A. Datastores
B. nodes
C. Objects
D. Logical volumes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
A VxRail administrator wants to search for VxRail related knowledge base articles through the VxRail Manager user
interface.
Which action must the administrator perform to use this feature?
A. Register for a VxRail Community login and set the credentials in VxRail Manager
B. Work with Dell EMC to register the VxRail appliance in the Install Database
C. Set the Dell EMC Support username and password in VxRail Manager
D. Configure proxy settings in VxRail Manager for access to the Internet
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is a consideration when choosing between vSphere Encryption and vSAN Encryption?
A. vSphere Encryption applies to the entire vSAN datastore vSAN Encryption is on a per VM basis
B. vSphere Encryption does not support deduplication and compression vSAN Encryption allows deduplication and
compression
C. vSphere Encryption addresses fears of media theft vSAN Encryption addresses fears of a rogue admin
D. vSphere Encryption is for data-at-rest vSAN Encryption is for data-in-flight
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which level of data protection can be configured across sites in a VxRail Stretched Cluster?
A. RAID1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1/0
D. RAID 6
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which user interface provides remote power control (power on and power off) for VxRail E Series nodes?
A. VxRail Manager
B. IPMI/BMC
C. iDRAC
D. VMware vSphere Web Client
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
There is a request to add two new disks to an existing VM residing on a VxRail vSAN that you manage One disk is 250
GB and the other is 500 GB The VM is using the vSAN default storage policy. How many vSAN objects will be created?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which VMware feature will restart the VM on a different host when the original host fails?
A. High Availability
B. vMotion
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. Fault Tolerance
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A user of VxRail Manager wants to investigate Storage IOPS for a node.
Which tab should they use1?
A. Health > Physical > Node
B. Health > Physical > Cluster
C. Health > Logical > Cluster
D. Health > Logical > Node
Correct Answer: C

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EMC exam certification information

Specialist –Technology Architect, Data Protection Version 1.0: https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/DES-3611_Specialist-Technology_Architect_Data_Protection_Exam.PDF

EMC Other Certification DES-3611 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A company\\’s environment consists of two data centers with a single Dell EMC XtremIO array. The company has
indicated that they need the ability to provide disaster recovery protection. Which RecoverPoint license will provide this
capability while minimizing cost?
A. RecoverPoint/CL on both clusters
B. ReocverPoint/CL on the Production cluster only
C. RecoverPoint/SE on both clusters
D. RecoverPoint/SE on the Production cluster only
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
In Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, which Application Direct agent supports Oracle 10gR2?
A. Microsoft Application Agent
B. Database Application Agent
C. Oracle RMAN Agent
D. Oracle Database Agent
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/white-papers/h10683-dd-boost-oracle-rman-tech-review-wp.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
Which Microsoft technologies are used to provide database consistent backups for MS SQL with Dell EMC DPS
Application Direct?
A. SSMS and T-SQL
B. VSS and VDI
C. VSS and SSMS
D. VDI and SSMS
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu91897.pdf


QUESTION 4
A customer is currently running VMs in two public cloud providers. As part of their overall data protection strategy, they
are interested in adding Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager to their portfolio. How many subscriptions does the
customer need to purchase to protect their VMs in both public cloud accounts?
A. One subscription per public cloud
B. One subscription, per year, for the number or capacity of VMs
C. One subscription for the cumulative number of all VMs
D. One subscription for the cumulative capacity of all VMs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
In the Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, what is a key benefit of Storage Direct Backup?
A. 10x faster recovery
B. 10x faster backup
C. Backup does not require a Data Domain
D. Support for a wide range of third-party storage arrays
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.bigstorageworks.com/Data-Protection-Suite-for-backup.asp

 

QUESTION 6
In a Dell EMC RecoverPoint environment, which Consistency Group setting will help prevent application throttling for
synchronous replication?
A. Snapshot Granularity
B. Dynamic by Latency
C. Deduplication
D. Compression
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
A company plans to integrate a Dell EMC IDPA DP4400 with two 4-port network cards in a Cisco switch infrastructure.
Which connection type is supported for backup and management?
A. 10 GbE with SFP+ optics attached
B. Copper Twinax up to 7m
C. 10 GbE SFP+ optical with LC-LC
D. 10BaseT with RJ45 Cat6
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8pass4itsure des-6311 exam question q8

Based on the exhibit, which Dell EMC Isolated Recovery Solution component includes compute and a hardened Data
Domain?
A. Backup Application Host
B. Management Host
C. Recovery Test Hosts
D. Vault Compute
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Based on which protection plan does Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager use to help take snapshots in an Amazon
Web Services cloud environment?
A. Tags
B. Time
C. Date
D. Volume
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A customer has 6,000 desktops and laptops with 1 TB of data, an average backup time of 10 minutes each, and 10 TB
of database data. The customer wants a solution that addresses the following requirements:
Deduplication in the shortest backup window with the fewest components Least performance impact on the database
servers
Which Dell EMC solution is recommended?
A. One Avamar 7.8 TB 3-node server integrated with a Data Domain system
B. Two Avamar 2.0 TB 5-node servers integrated with a Data Domain system
C. NetWorker with multiple deduplication nodes
D. NetWorker with integrated deduplication nodes and a Data Domain system
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
What is the expected compression rate for protection operations with Dell EMC Data Domain Cloud DR before sending
data to the cloud?
A. 45%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 65%
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.informationwatch.net/collateral/faq/data-domain-dd3300.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
You are designing cloud protection for a customer who is using Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager. Which Microsoft
Azure resource is supported with Snapshot Management?
A. Relational Database Service
B. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Managed Virtual Machine
D. Elastic Block Store
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
A customer wants to use 40 GbE breakout uplinks in a Dell EMC Integrated Data Protection Appliance (IDPA) factory-
configured ToR switch. Which customer environment needs to exist to make use of this uplink option?
A. IDPA ToR switch needs to be connected to a Cisco switch
B. Customer switch needs to have 16 unused Twinax or SFP+ optical ports
C. IDPA ToR switch needs to be connected to a Dell switch
D. SFTP+ transceivers and breakout cables need to be provided by the switch vendor
Correct Answer: C

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-767: Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-767.aspx
This exam is intended for extract, transform, and load (ETL) and data warehouse developers who create business intelligence (BI) solutions.
Their responsibilities include data cleansing, in addition to ETL and data warehouse implementation.

pass4itsure 70-767 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Design, implement and maintain a data warehouse (35–40%)
  • Extract, transform and load data (40–45%)
  • Build data quality solutions (15–20%)

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-767 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You configure a new matching policy Master Data Services (MDS) as shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q1

You review the Matching Results of the policy and find that the number of new values matches the new values.
You verify that the data contains multiple records that have similar address values, and you expect some of the records
to match.
You need to increase the likelihood that the records will match when they have similar address values.
Solution: You decrease the minimum matching score of the matching policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
We decrease the Min. matching score.
A data matching project consists of a computer-assisted process and an interactive process. The matching project
applies the matching rules in the matching policy to the data source to be assessed. This process assesses the
likelihood that any two rows are matches in a matching score. Only those records with a probability of a match greater
than a value set by the data steward in the matching policy will be considered a match. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/data-quality-services/data-matching


QUESTION 2
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to several servers. The package must meet
the following requirements:
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package imports daily transactions from several files into a SQL Server table
named Transaction. Each file corresponds to a different store and is imported in parallel with the other files. The data
flow
tasks use OLE DB destinations in fast load data access mode.
The number of daily transactions per store can be very large and is growing. The Transaction table does not have any
indexes.
You need to minimize the package execution time.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by day and store.
B. Create a clustered index on the Transaction table.
C. Run the package in Performance mode.
D. Increase the value of the Row per Batch property.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: * Data Access Mode ?This setting provides the \\’fast load\\’ option which internally uses a BULK INSERT
statement for uploading data into the destination table instead of a simple INSERT statement (for each single row) as in
the case for other options.
* BULK INSERT parameters include:
ROWS_PER_BATCH =rows_per_batch
Indicates the approximate number of rows of data in the data file. By default, all the data in the data file is sent to the
server as a single transaction, and the number of rows in the batch is unknown to the query optimizer. If you specify
ROWS_PER_BATCH (with a value > 0) the server uses this value to optimize the bulk- import operation. The value
specified for ROWS_PER_BATCH should approximately the same as the actual number of rows.

QUESTION 4
You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project.
The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a Microsoft Excel file.
Additional packages in the project must also access this file.
You need to define and reuse the Excel file connection in all project packages.
What should you do?
A. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it in the second package.
B. Set the RetainSameConnection property of the package Connection Manager to True.
C. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection Manager.
D. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. The data warehouse currently includes
the dimUser and dimRegion dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each
user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimRegion table contains information about sales regions.
The system is accessed by users from certain regions, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate
headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain regions. Some
users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple regions.
What should you do?
A. For each region, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the region.
B. Create a userRegion table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimRegion tables.
C. Add a region column to the dimUser table.
D. Partition the factSales table on the region column.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse hosted
on SQL Azure.
The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single
server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed
on a different schedule.
Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. Parent Package Variable
B. XML Configuration File
C. Environment Variable
D. .dtsConfig file
E. Registry Entry
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
You have a data quality project that focuses on the Products catalog for the company. The data includes a product
reference number.
The product reference should use the following format: Two letters followed by an asterisk and then four or five
numbers. An example of a valid number is XX*55522. Any reference number that does not conform to the format must
be rejected
during the data cleansing.
You need to add a Data Quality Services (DQS) domain rule in the Products domain.
Which rule should you use?
A. value matches pattern ZA*9876[5]
B. value matches pattern AZ[*]1234[5]
C. value matches regular expression AZ[*]1234[5]
D. value matches pattern [a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z]*[0-9][0-9] [0-9][0-9] [0-9]?
Correct Answer: A
For a pattern matching rule: Any letter (A…Z) can be used as a pattern for any letter; case insensitive Any digit (0…9)
can be used as a pattern for any digit Any special character, except a letter or a digit, can be used as a pattern for itself
Brackets, [], define optional matching
Example: ABC:0000 This rule implies that the data will contain three parts: any three letters followed by a colon (:),
which is again followed by any four digits.

 

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a data warehouse that stores information about products, sales, and orders for a manufacturing company.
The instance contains a database that has two tables named SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail.
SalesOrderHeader
has 500,000 rows and SalesOrderDetail has 3,000,000 rows.
Users report performance degradation when they run the following stored procedure:pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q8

You need to optimize performance.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q8-1

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can specify the sample size as a percent. A 5% statistics sample size would be helpful.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-statistics

 

QUESTION 9
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the
data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in
each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all
dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server instance and a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance. You
move data from the on-premises database to the data warehouse once each day by using a SQL Server Integration
Services (SSIS) package.
You observe that the package no longer completes within the allotted time.
You need to determine which tasks are taking a long time to complete.
Solution: You alter the package to log the start and completion times for a task to a table in the on-premises SQL Server
instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC) feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert, update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. Audit
B. Merge Join
C. Merge
D. CDC Splitter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh758656.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. The model was developed to
provide consistent and validated snapshots of master data to the ETL processes by using subscription views. A new
model version has been created.
You need to ensure that the ETL processes retrieve the latest snapshot of master data.
What should you do?
A. Add a version flag to the last committed version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
B. Update the subscription views to use the last committed version.
C. Add a version flag to the new version, and update the subscription views to use this version flag.
D. Add a version flag to the new version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You create a script task in the package.
You need to dynamically set the file name of a connection object named File1 by using the script task
Which line of code should you add to the script task?
A. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).AcquireConnection(“C:\temp\temp.txt”)
B. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).Variables.Item[“FileName”].value = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
C. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).Properties.Item[“FileName”].Setvalue = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
D. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).ConnectionString = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco 700-505 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and

applications in real time?

A. Cisco Unity

B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module

C. Borderless Networks

D. WebEx meetings

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.webex.com/how-to/

 

QUESTION 2

Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on

demand? (Choose two.)

A. 3900 Series

B. 2900 Series

C. 2800 Series

D. 800 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps10598/data_sheet_c78-553913.html

 

QUESTION 3

Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions?

(Choose three.)

A. Guarantee reliability.

B. Improve workforce productivity.

C. Hire more staff.

D. Increase cash flow.

E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.

F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.

Correct Answer: BEF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 4

Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.

Which best practice can close the sale?

A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial

B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.

C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.

D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating

management.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 5

Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 3048

B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers

C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

E. Cisco Nexus 5000

F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/ps10265/ps12629/white_paper_c11-715347.html (Second

para)

 

QUESTION 6

Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)

A. Document, application, and desktop sharing

B. Available in 226 languages

C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings

D. Consistent, cross-platform experience

E. Third-party voice included

F. Per-user attention status indicator

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps10412/index.html

 

QUESTION 7

Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?

A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.

B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.

C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the

LAN or across the WAN.

D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/products/architecture/

 

QUESTION 8

Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery

B. 50 percent less time in application deployment

C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs

D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/GR/connect2013/pdfs/024_cisco_eugenioszervoudis.pdf (slide 10)

 

QUESTION 9

Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless

Network? (Choose two.)

A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.

B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases

C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve

D. All potential failures will be eliminated.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/education/BNArchitecture.pdf (page 10, third bullet)

 

QUESTION 10

Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)

A. validates business decisions

B. protects revenue streams

C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs

D. increases business resilience

E. enhances career paths

F. promotes independence

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 11

Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks?

(Choose two.)A. having networking experts on site

B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization

C. implementing data center or large campus deployments

D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff

E. moving applications to the cloud

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 12

Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and

promotions?

A. Web search

B. Cisco Partner Central web site

C. 1-877-GO-CISCO

D. Your local Cisco sales engineer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/index.html

 

QUESTION 13

Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)

A. drives growth and profitability

B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)

C. differentiates your business

D. provides access to promotions and incentives

E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification

F. partner program enrollment increases

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco Channel Partner Program provides many ways to differentiate your business and drive growth

and profitability for your company.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/pr11/index.html

 

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?

A. SMARTnet

B. Small Business Support Service

C. SmartCare

D. Collaborative Professional Services

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco?Smart Care Service proactively verifies that the network is secure, reliable, and functioning

optimally so that you can improve your employee productivity and customer responsiveness and get the

most from your technology investments.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/services/programs/smartcare/downloads/Cisco_Smart_Care_

Partner_AAG_1111.pdf

 

QUESTION 15

Which statement about TrustSec is true?

A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.

B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services

to make context-aware access control decisions.

C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video

applications.

D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns170/ns896/ns1051/at_a_glance_c45- 653057.pdf (page

1, see Cisco TrustSec Secures borderless networks, first para, first sentence)

 

QUESTION 16

Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series?

(Choose two.)

A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.

B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.

C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.

D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps6032/ps6094/ps6120/at_a_glance_c45- 701635.pdf

 

QUESTION 17

Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize

business? (Choose two.)

A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint

B. Cisco MX200

C. Cisco VCS

D. Cisco Profile 42

Correct Answer: BD

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/products/webextelepresence/products.html

 

QUESTION 18

A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.

Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)

A. 8900 Series

B. 9900 Series

C. 3900 Series

D. 5900 Series

E. 6900 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/voicesw/ps6788/ip_phones.html (Both are high performance solutions.

See the bulleted points underneath each solution)

 

QUESTION 19

Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA

security.

B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.

C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.

D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure

mobility client.

E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.

F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/routers/ps10616/white_paper_c11_556985_ps10538

_Products_White_Paper.html

 

QUESTION 20

Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?

A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.

B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.

C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.

D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns394/ns348/ns1070/aag_c22-594304.pdf

 

QUESTION 21

Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server

B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch

D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series

F. Cisco Nexus 5000

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns517/ns224/exps.pdf (page 2, the components,

second and third bullet)

 

QUESTION 22

Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical

details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?

A. Cisco Commerce Workspace

B. Competitive Portal

C. Quick Product Reference Guide

D. Cisco Discovery Service

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 23

Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose

three.)

A. RSTP8021w

B. Universal PoE

C. medianet

D. Flexible NetFlow

E. Multiprotocol Label Switching

F. Gigabit Ethernet

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 24

Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? (Choose four.)

A. eliminate redundancy

B. guarantee business outcomes

C. increase ROID. reduce independence

E. provide reliability

F. slow staff growth

G. lower costs

H. boost productivity

Correct Answer: CEGH

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 25

In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)

A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility

B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff

C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools

D. by providing a complex borderless solution

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 26

Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or

prospective customers? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Meraki roadshow

B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE

C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program

D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager

E. Free product trials

F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 27

Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)

A. IP telephones

B. Cisco Telepresence

C. Mobile device management

D. Switches

E. Security appliances

F. Servers

G. Storage

H. Wireless access points

Correct Answer: CDEH

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/ (see products)

 

QUESTION 28

Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?

A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook

B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.

C. It provides business hours global coverage

D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Source collection, analysis, and delivery of Security Intelligence content that includes services,

publications, VoDs, and podcasts are among the key resources offered through SIO. SIO provides insight

into threat trends and future outlook to protect the network through security best practices guidance and

mitigation techniques.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/services/news/ts_newsletter/tool/archives/201004.html

 

QUESTION 29

Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution?

(Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree

B. Smart Install

C. AutoSmartPorts

D. Smart CallHome

E. Solar-powered

F. Uninterruptable power

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps4324/at_a_glance_c45- 686803.pdf

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
What does the Warehouse Proxy agent do?
A. It provides dashboard visualization and reporting services for the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
B. It receives data collected by monitoring agents and moves it to the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
C. It analyzes and enriches the data that is collected by its monitoring agents and provides reports about the performance and capacity of systems.
D. It provides the ability to customize the length of time to save data and how often to aggregate granular data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What can an IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator do to help users view events when the Situation Event Console is constantly receiving too many alerts per hour?
A. Disable the Situation Event Console and clear alerts
B. Move the Situation Event Console to a separate server
C. Use IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus and send alerts to that console if entitled
D. The Situation Event Console is multi-threaded so add more processes to the process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which type of files are required for presenting workspaces, online help, and expert advice for the agent in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. audit and policy files
B. catalog and attribute files
C. help and presentation files
D. application configuration files
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of multiple Warehouse Proxy agents?
A. To get more accurate data from the Tivoli Data Warehouse
B. So that Summarization and Pruning can complete in its window
C. To ensure that Tivoli Monitoring agent data is written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. To allow multiple users to query the Tivoli Data Warehouse from the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
The Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server database contains which data?
A. Query, User, and Situation
B. Query, User, and Managed Systems
C. Query, User, and Workspace Definition
D. User, Situation, and Workspace Definition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about correlated situations?
A. They can only be used if referenced in a policy.
B. They only run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
C. They only run at Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers.
D. They run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server and Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
How are logically related attributes stored?
A. As Attribute Events
B. As Attribute Groups
C. As Attribute Policies
D. As Attribute Containers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which step is necessary to create a new query for data retrieval?
A. Click the Query Editor Icon on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) tool bar.
B. Click the Modify Query icon on the TEP tool bar.
C. Click Administration Mode and then select the Query Editor from the list.
D. Click Administration Mode, click List, and then select Query Editor from the list.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
How can a predefined workspace be restored to the original workspace?
A. Run tacmd restore workspace
B. File > Restore Original Workspace
C. Restart the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
D. It cannot be restored to the original workspace.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true regarding an export of monitoring data to a file after running a query?
A. No data can be excluded from the export.
B. Only rows can be excluded from the export.
C. Only columns can be excluded from the export.
D. Rows and columns can be excluded from the export.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
What is supplied with each monitoring agent?
A. Attribute Groups
B. Tivoli Data Warehouse reports
C. Universal Agent Data Providers
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus rules
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Where can a user defined query be used for data retrieval?
A. View only
B. Workspace only
C. View and Workspace only
D. View, Workspace, and Embedded Situations
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What is range partitioning?
A. An historical data collection feature that allows data to be filtered.
B. A feature used by the Agentless technology that allows better control of agent deployment.
C. A database data organization feature that can reduce feedback time for Summarization and Pruning agent performance.
D. A database data organization feature that can significantly improve pruning and query performance in large Tivoli Data Warehouse databases.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What should be used to show trends overtime among related attributes?
A. Bar chart
B. Plot chart
C. Topology view
D. Linear gauge chart
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
What are two ways to control all of the data streams that are available to a user in IBM Tivoli Monitoring? (Choose two.)A. Policies
B. Workflows
C. Workspaces
D. Pruning data
E. Logical views
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are three types of links at the Tivoli Enterprise Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Pure
B. Static
C. Relative
D. Absolute
E. Dynamic
F. Sampled
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation

QUESTION 17
What influences the data collection within the IBM Tivoli Monitoring environment?
A. Number of agents
B. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Portal Servers
C. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers
D. Number of Summarization and Pruning agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which permission must be set for a user to publish a workspace?
A. Administration Mode Eligible and Author Mode Eligible
B. Author Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
C. Workspace Administration Mode and Workspace Author Mode
D. Administration Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
What must be configured and distributed to the managed systems that data is being queried from, to enable the Specify Time Span for Query?
A. Historical Situation
B. Event Integration Facility
C. Historical Data Collection
D. The Until feature on a situation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Log in access to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client is controlled by user accounts that are defined where?
A. Dashboard Hub Services
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Authorization Policy Server
D. Operating System User Registry
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which two tasks must a user perform to create custom workspaces for a group? (Choose two.)
A. Create the custom workspaces and then save them when exiting.
B. Change the group settings on existing workspaces and rename them.
C. Log in as the group account and create the views in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS) for the team.
D. Custom workspaces can only be created in the TEPS if Dashboard Application Services Hub is installed.
E. Check that there is a group assigned in the TEPS for the team and limit the use of the workspaces to that group.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 22
When defining a user that will be responsible to ensure the proper backups are taken, which Tivoli Enterprise Portal Sewer user group would be assigned to the
user?
A. Operations
B. Management
C. Administrators
D. Support Teams
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
What is a characteristic of a pure event?
A. It does not close automatically by default.
B. It has a unique randomized control number.
C. It links with enterprise workspace automatically.
D. It returns multiple rows for historical data collection.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
What are two functions defined within a policy? (Choose two.)
A. Have the policy start or stop policies
B. Have the policy start or stop situations
C. Have the policy write the attributes to the agent log
D. Have the policy automatically acknowledge the situation that triggered the event
E. Have the attribute record that triggered the policy write a historical record of the specific data
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 25
With a policy there are many features and functions available to create a workflow type process when a given situation becomes true. Which feature is available?
A. Start/Stop SNMP
B. Start/Stop a Policy
C. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent
D. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
How can you tell if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. The Navigator item will be grey.
B. The situation icon will appear red for all situations when true.
C. The situation icon will always appear beside the Navigator item.
D. The Navigator item will appear when the situation becomes true.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
What does the Krarlofl program do?
A. It converts short-term history files to delimited flat files.
B. It is used to dynamically change the tracing options for an agent.
C. It is used transfer a file from a remote managed system to a local destination.
D. It is used to generate the auto start scripts on UNIX and Linux based on the definitions in kcirunas.cfg.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
No data is being written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse (TDW), and all the Warehouse Prows’ agents are online with a normal status. What should be checked?
A. Verify the database is supported.
B. Verify the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server user ID is logged in to the TDW.
C. Verify the Summarization and Pruning agent is running according to its schedule.
D. Verify the database User ID the Warehouse Prows’ agent is using has sufficient database privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNi bus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
What is monitored by the Summarization and Pruning agent (SPA)?
A. The run time and completion of the SPA
B. The connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. The size of the tables being summarized and pruned
D. Availability of space on the disk where the Tivoli Data Warehouse is located
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which type of diagram is used to visualize historical data?
A. Pie Chart
B. Plot Chart
C. Table View
D. Graphic View
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which group is indicated by a in front of some groups in the Object Group editor?
A. Default
B. Unused
C. Ali Groups
D. Managed System
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
What is a workspace as it relates to IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A screen in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) to display data.
B. A policy in the TEP for displaying logical views.
C. A screen that displays only temporary historical data.
D. A policy in the TEP for displaying information for physical views.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
What must occur to publish a workspace?
A. Have Workspace Author Mode and click the Save icon
B. Click the Create New Workspace icon, create the Workspace, and then click the Save icon
C. Have Workspace Administration, click the Properties icon, and then click the Apply Button
D. Click the Save icon and then contact an administrator and ask them to publish the new workspace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
When setting a time span to display, what would cause Null to be displayed as the value of a table cell or chart point?
A. The IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) license key is invalid.
B. The ITM encryption key is invalid.
C. The Tivoli Data Warehouse agent is not running.
D. No data was stored in the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
You are running Hadoop cluster with all monitoring facilities properly configured.
Which scenario will go undeselected?
A. HDFS is almost full
B. The NameNode goes down
C. A DataNode is disconnected from the cluster
D. Map or reduce tasks that are stuck in an infinite loop
E. MapReduce jobs are causing excessive memory swaps
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which scheduler would you deploy to ensure that your cluster allows short jobs to finish within a reasonable time without
starting long-running jobs?
A. Complexity Fair Scheduler (CFS)
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which is the default scheduler in YARN?
A. YARN doesn\’t configure a default scheduler, you must first assign an appropriate scheduler class in yarn-site.xml
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website. For example, you want to know which
pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a server farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. Which is the
most efficient process to gather these web server across logs into your Hadoop cluster analysis?
A. Sample the web server logs web servers and copy them into HDFS using curl B. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume
C. Channel these clickstreams into Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming
D. Import all user clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop using Sqoop
E. Write a MapReeeduce job with the web servers for mappers and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reducers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You suspect that your NameNode is incorrectly configured, and is swapping memory to disk. Which Linux commands
help you to identify whether swapping is occurring? (Select all that apply)
A. free
B. df
C. memcat
D. top
E. jps
F. vmstat
G. swapinfo
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 6
Which YARN daemon or service negotiations map and reduce Containers from the Scheduler, tracking their status and
monitoring progress?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. ApplicationManager
D. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of map output records. Your
child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve
maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0 D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as close to equals) the
number of map output records.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are planning a Hadoop cluster and considering implementing 10 Gigabit Ethernet as the network fabric. Which
workloads benefit the most from faster network fabric?
A. When your workload generates a large amount of output data, significantly larger than the amount of intermediate
data
B. When your workload consumes a large amount of input data, relative to the entire capacity if HDFS
C. When your workload consists of processor-intensive tasks
D. When your workload generates a large amount of intermediate data, on the order of the input data itself
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a cluster running with the fair Scheduler enabled. There are currently no jobs running on the cluster, and you
submit a job A, so that only job A is running on the cluster. A while later, you submit Job B. now Job A and Job B are
running on the cluster at the same time. How will the Fair Scheduler handle these two jobs? (Choose two)
A. When Job B gets submitted, it will get assigned tasks, while job A continues to run with fewer tasks.
B. When Job B gets submitted, Job A has to finish first, before job B can gets scheduled.
C. When Job A gets submitted, it doesn\’t consumes all the task slots.
D. When Job A gets submitted, it consumes all the task slots.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Cluster Summary:
45 files and directories, 12 blocks = 57 total. Heap size is 15.31 MB/193.38MB(7%)
pass4itsure question
Refer to the above screenshot.
You configure a Hadoop cluster with seven DataNodes and on of your monitoring UIs displays the details shown in the
exhibit.
What does the this tell you?
A. The DataNode JVM on one host is not active
B. Because your under-replicated blocks count matches the Live Nodes, one node is dead, and your DFS Used %
equals 0%, you can\’t be certain that your cluster has all the data you\’ve written it.
C. Your cluster has lost all HDFS data which had bocks stored on the dead DatNode
D. The HDFS cluster is in safe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary NameNode on host
mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last checkpoint value in fstime
file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the andquot;Last
Checkpointandquot; information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the andquot;Last
Checkpointandquot; information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are configuring a server running HDFS, MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN running Linux. How must youformat underlying file system of each DataNode?
A. They must be formatted as HDFS
B. They must be formatted as either ext3 or ext4
C. They may be formatted in any Linux file system
D. They must not be formatted – – HDFS will format the file system automatically
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You want to node to only swap Hadoop daemon data from RAM to disk when absolutely necessary. What should you
do?
A. Delete the /dev/vmswap file on the node
B. Delete the /etc/swap file on the node
C. Set the ram.swap parameter to 0 in core-site.xml
D. Set vm.swapfile file on the node
E. Delete the /swapfile file on the node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Your Hadoop cluster is configuring with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can you configure a worker
node to run a NodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still have a functional cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Map tasks only
D. Yes. The daemon will receive Reducer tasks only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Assume you have a file named foo.txt in your local directory. You issue the following three commands: Hadoop fs mkdir
input
Hadoop fs put foo.txt input/foo.txt
Hadoop fs put foo.txt input What happens when you issue the third command? A. The write succeeds, overwriting foo.txt in HDFS with no warning
B. The file is uploaded and stored as a plain file named input
C. You get a warning that foo.txt is being overwritten
D. You get an error message telling you that foo.txt already exists, and asking you if you would like to overwrite it.
E. You get a error message telling you that foo.txt already exists. The file is not written to HDFS
F. You get an error message telling you that input is not a directory
G. The write silently fails
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
You are working on a project where you need to chain together MapReduce, Pig jobs. You also need the ability to use
forks, decision points, and path joins. Which ecosystem project should you use to perform these actions?
A. Oozie
B. ZooKeeper
C. HBase
D. Sqoop
E. HUE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
During the execution of a MapReduce v2 (MRv2) job on YARN, where does the Mapper place the intermediate data of
each Map Task?
A. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the node running the Job\’s ApplicationMaster so that it is available to
YARN ShuffleService before the data is presented to the Reducer
B. The Mapper stores the intermediate data in HDFS on the node where the Map tasks ran in the HDFS /
usercache/andamp;(user)/apache/application_andamp;(appid) directory for the user who ran the job
C. The Mapper transfers the intermediate data immediately to the reducers as it is generated by the Map Task
D. YARN holds the intermediate data in the NodeManager\’s memory (a container) until it is transferred to the Reducer
E. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the underlying filesystem of the local disk in the directories
yarn.nodemanager.locak-DIFS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
You have a Hadoop cluster HDFS, and a gateway machine external to the cluster from which clients submit jobs. What
do you need to do in order to run Impala on the cluster and submit jobs from the command line of the gatewaymachine?
A. Install the impalad daemon statestored daemon, and daemon on each machine in the cluster, and the impala shell on
your gateway machine
B. Install the impalad daemon, the statestored daemon, the catalogd daemon, and the impala shell on your gateway
machine
C. Install the impalad daemon and the impala shell on your gateway machine, and the statestored daemon and catalogd
daemon on one of the nodes in the cluster
D. Install the impalad daemon on each machine in the cluster, the statestored daemon and catalogd daemon on one
machine in the cluster, and the impala shell on your gateway machine
E. Install the impalad daemon, statestored daemon, and catalogd daemon on each machine in the cluster and on the
gateway node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. What is the result when you
execute: hadoop jar SampleJar MyClass on a client machine?
A. SampleJar.Jar is sent to the ApplicationMaster which allocates a container for SampleJar.Jar
B. Sample.jar is placed in a temporary directory in HDFS
C. SampleJar.jar is sent directly to the ResourceManager
D. SampleJar.jar is serialized into an XML file which is submitted to the ApplicatoionMaster
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which command does Hadoop offer to discover missing or corrupt HDFS data?
A. Hdfs fs du
B. Hdfs fsck
C. Dskchk D. The map-only checksum
E. Hadoop does not provide any tools to discover missing or corrupt data; there is not need because three replicas are
kept for each data block
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Assuming a cluster running HDFS, MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN with all settings at their default, what do you
need to do when adding a new slave node to cluster?
A. Nothing, other than ensuring that the DNS (or/etc/hosts files on all machines) contains any entry for the new node.
B. Restart the NameNode and ResourceManager daemons and resubmit any running jobs.
C. Add a new entry to /etc/nodes on the NameNode host.
D. Restart the NameNode of dfs.number.of.nodes in hdfs-site.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Your company stores user profile records in an OLTP databases. You want to join these records with web server logs
you have already ingested into the Hadoop file system. What is the best way to obtain and ingest these user records?
A. Ingest with Hadoop streaming
B. Ingest using Hive\’s IQAD DATA command
C. Ingest with sqoop import
D. Ingest with Pig\’s LOAD command
E. Ingest using the HDFS put command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which process instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2)
on YARN?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. TaskTracker
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
G. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You\’re upgrading a Hadoop cluster from HDFS and MapReduce version 1 (MRv1) to one running HDFS and
MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You want to
set and enforce version 1 (MRv1) to one running HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You want to set
and enforce a block size of 128MB for all
new files written to the cluster after upgrade.
What should you do?
A. You cannot enforce this, since client code can always override this value
B. Set dfs.block.size to 128M on all the worker nodes, on all client machines, and on the NameNode, and set the
parameter to final
C. Set dfs.block.size to 128 M on all the worker nodes and client machines, and set the parameter to final. You do not
need to set this value on the NameNode
D. Set dfs.block.size to 134217728 on all the worker nodes, on all client machines, and on the NameNode, and set the
parameter to final
E. Set dfs.block.size to 134217728 on all the worker nodes and client machines, and set the parameter to final. You do
not need to set this value on the NameNode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your cluster is running MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Your ResourceManager is configured to use the
FairScheduler. Now you want to configure your scheduler such that a new user on the cluster can submit jobs into their
own queue application submission. Which configuration should you set?
A. You can specify new queue name when user submits a job and new queue can be created dynamically if the
property yarn.scheduler.fair.allow-undecleared
pools = true
B. Yarn.scheduler.fair.user.fair-as-default-queue = false and yarn.scheduler.fair.allow- undecleared-pools = true
C. You can specify new queue name when user submits a job and new queue can be created dynamically if yarn
.schedule.fair.user-as-default-queue = false
D. You can specify new queue name per application in allocations.xml file and have new jobs automatically assigned to
the application queue
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A user comes to you, complaining that when she attempts to submit a Hadoop job, it fails. There is a Directory in HDFS
named /data/input. The Jar is named j.jar, and the driver class is named DriverClass.
She runs the command: Hadoop jar j.jar DriverClass /data/input/data/output
The error message returned includes the line: PriviligedActionException as:training (auth:SIMPLE)
cause:org.apache.hadoop.mapreduce.lib.input.invalidInputException: Input path does not exist: file:/data/input
What is the cause of the error?
A. The user is not authorized to run the job on the cluster
B. The output directory already exists
C. The name of the driver has been spelled incorrectly on the command line
D. The directory name is misspelled in HDFS
E. The Hadoop configuration files on the client do not point to the cluster
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two are features of Hadoop\’s rack topology? (Choose two)
A. Configuration of rack awareness is accomplished using a configuration file. You cannot use a rack topology script.
B. Hadoop gives preference to intra-rack data transfer in order to conserve bandwidth
C. Rack location is considered in the HDFS block placement policy
D. HDFS is rack aware but MapReduce daemon are not
E. Even for small clusters on a single rack, configuring rack awareness will improve performance
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Your cluster has the following characteristics: A rack aware topology is configured and on
Replication is set to 3
Cluster block size is set to 64MB
Which describes the file read process when a client application connects into the cluster and requests a 50MB file?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads all three copies. The first copy to complete
transfer to the client is the one the client reads as part of hadoop\’s speculative execution framework.
B. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads from the first location in the list it receives.
C. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads from a random location in the list it
receives to eliminate network I/O loads by balancing which nodes it retrieves data from any given time. D. The client queries the NameNode which retrieves the block from the nearest DataNode to the client then passes that
block back to the client.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
On a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN, a MapReduce job is given a directory of 10 plain text files as its
input directory. Each file is made up of 3 HDFS blocks. How many Mappers will run?
A. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the ResourceManager
B. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the developer
C. 30
D. 3
E. 10
F. We cannot say; the number of mappers is determined by the ApplicationMaster
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
In a switched network with Unicast
A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.
B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.
C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.
D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An installer is upgrading an installation with several analog PTZ cameras using Axis Q-line encoders. Which of the following options should be checked before proceeding?
A. That the SD card is supported
B. That H.264 compression is supported
C. That both D1 and 4CIF resolution are supported
D. That the PTZ driver is supported
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Media Control
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about multicast video streaming are true? (Choose three) A. Multicast can help to save bandwidth in a network
B. Multicast can typically not be used to provide video over internet
C. Multicast uses TCP as transport protocol
D. Multicast extends the viewer capacity of a camera or an encoder from 10-20 to an unlimited number
E. RTSP streams are always sent through multicast
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A convenience store needs a camera to cover the entrance. Identification is needed at 80 pixels per face. Given that the
scene is 2 m (6 ft 7 in) wide, which of these resolutions is the minimum one needed?
A. 640X480
B. 800 X 600
C. 1280 X 720
D. 1920 X 1080
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which network features are usually combined to prevent access to the surveillance network?
A. IEEE 802.3ad link aggregation and HTTPS encryption
B. IP subnets and VLANs
C. Router port forwarding and IP subnets
D. Router port forwarding and VLANs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When using IR illuminators, which wavelengths would not produce any visible glow?
A. 650 nm
B. 750 nm
C. 850 nm
D. 940 nm
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
AXIS Design Tool is used for
A. Estimating bandwidth and creating a bill of materials.
B. Determining camera coverage and creating a bill of materials.
C. Selecting the right cameras and choosing AXIS Camera Station licenses.
D. Plan network topology and determining camera coverage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer has strict requirements of 30 fps for recorded video. Which encoder choice would they select if they wanted three streams, per every one encoded channel, of D1 resolution video run at 30 fps in H.264?
A. AXISM7210
B. AXISP7210
C. AXISP7214
D. AXISQ7406
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If an installer wants to configure 20 cameras to show the same synchronized date and time in Live View, how can this be achieved?
A. Adapt the date and time from a client computer when using the camera configuration tool
B. Synchronize the date and time with a remote FTP server by downloading files from the server
C. Synchronize the date and time with a remote NTP server
D. Fetch the date and time from the installed root certificate
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How does the AXIS Design Tool allow users to estimate the effects of scene complexity and motion on bandwidth and storage usage?
A. AXIS Design Tool requires users to manually enter their own estimated bit rate for each camera
B. Users can view model scenario videos and select the scenario that best matches their scene
C. Users can upload recorded surveillance video to allow AXIS Design Tool to make estimates
D. AXIS Design Tool uses a statistical model based on selected camera model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The purpose of a router is to
A. Forward traffic within a local network.
B. Forward traffic between different networks.
C. Manage server connections to a local network.
D. Establish encrypted connections between networks over the internet.
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are common ways to protect video while using a wireless network? (Choose two)
A. VPN
B. WPA2
C. IEEE 802.1x
D. IEEE802.11N
E. HTTPS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Gatekeeper is a function that
A. Makes it possible for a PTZ camera to do a guard tour.
B. Enables two way audio for communication at a gate.
C. Uses video motion detection for detecting if a gate is open.
D. Uses video motion to zoom in on an object.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Focusing a camera improves the image, but it also
A. Has an effect on the frame rate
B. Increases the bandwidth
C. Changes the pixel resolution
D. Decreases the bandwidth
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is the appropriate usage for an Axis thermal camera?
A. Identifying people in complete darkness
B. Detecting motion only at nighttime
C. Measuring exact temperatures in daytime
D. Detecting activity in daylight and complete darkness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
IP51 and IP52 means that the camera
A. Can be placed in or outdoors.
B. Is resistant to dust and dripping water.
C. Is vandal resistant.
D. Is designed for tough environments.
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Ghost image is when
A. The lens is using too high f-stop value.
B. The shutter time is too long.
C. The gain is too high.
D. The frame rate is too low.
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A Day andamp; Night camera automatically removes the IR-cut filter for low light operations. In that mode, the camera becomes sensitive to IR light. Which wavelength is the camera most sensitive to?
A. 850 nm
B. 950 nm
C. 1140 nm
D. 1350 nm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
The capability to view and record up to four different areas of the whole image of an AXIS P1346 is called
A. Multicast streaming.
B. Multi-view streaming.
C. Broadcast streaming.
D. Multi-link streaming.
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Increased noise levels in a scene will increase the
A. Light sensitivity.
B. Contrast level.
C. Bandwidth usage.
D. Brightness level.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
When choosing a camera for extreme low temperature environments, how would Arctic Temperature Control ensure camera longevity?
A. The product is always kept cold
B. The product can handle low ambient temperatures
C. The product is protected against extreme temperatures
D. The product performs a stepped start-up at low ambient temperature
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 20
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual-core processors and 32 GB of RAM.
You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory.
You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.
What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Memory weight
C. Dynamic Memory
D. NUMA topology
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Dynamic Memory is a new Hyper-V feature that helps you use physical memory more efficiently. With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V treats memory as a shared resource that can be reallocated automatically among running virtual machines. Dynamic Memory adjusts the amount of memory available to a virtual machine, based on changes in memory demand and values that you specify. Dynamic Memory is available for Hyper-V in Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
* Dynamic Memory helps you use memory resources more efficiently. Before this feature was introduced, changing the amount of memory available to a virtual machine could be done only when the virtual machine was turned off. With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V can provide a virtual machine with more or less memory dynamically in response to changes in the amount ofmemory required by the workloads or Applications running in the virtual machine. As a result, Hyper-V can distribute memory more efficiently among the running virtual machines configured with Dynamic Memory. Depending on factors such as workload, this efficiency can make it possible to run more virtual machines at the same time on one physical computer.

QUESTION 21
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 has several snapshots.
You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
B. Right-click VM1, and then click Move. ..
C. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
D. PauseVM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
you will need to navigate to the Hyper-V Management snap-in from there access the Snapshot file Location tab where you can change the settings for the VM1 snapshot file
location. However, since there are already several snapshots in existence, you will need to delete them first because you will not be able to change the location of the snapshot file while there is an existing snapshot. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1.

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. On a server named Server2, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.You join Server2 to the contoso.com domain. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 by using the Computer Management console on Server1. What should you do on Server2?
A. Install Windows Management Framework.
B. Run sconfig.exe and configure Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Run sconfig.exe and configure remote management.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails. Maximize the amount of useable storage space. What should you create?
A. A mirrored space
B. A spanned volume
C. A parity space
D. A simple space
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Fault tolerant and better space ratio. The data on volumes created on this type of virtual disk, together with parity information that can be used to facilitate automatic reconstruction of data in the event of a physical disk failure, is striped across all physical disks in the pool. Parity virtual disks also provide resiliency to help protect you from data loss arising from the failure 368 Chapter 8 File services and storage of a physical disk in the pool, but they perform better with large sequential disk writes than with random I/O.

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 has a virtual switch named RDS Virtual. You replace all of the network adapters on Server1 with new network adapters that support single-root I/O visualization (SR-IOV). You need to enable SR-IOV for all of the virtual machines on Server1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On each virtual machine, modify the Advanced Features settings of the network adapter.
B. Modify the settings of the RDS Virtual virtual switch.
C. On each virtual machine, modify the BIOS settings.
D. Delete, and then recreate the RDS Virtual virtual switch.
E. On each virtual machine, modify the Hardware Acceleration settings of the network adapter.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The first step when allowing a virtual machine to have connectivity to a physical network is to create an external virtual switch using Virtual Switch Manager in Hyper-V Manager. The additional step that is necessary when using SR-IOV is to ensure the checkbox is checked when the virtual switch is being created. It is not possible to change a “non SR-IOV mode” external virtual switch into an “SR-IOV mode” switch. The choice must be made a switch creation time. Thus you should first delete the existing virtual switch and then recreate it.
E: Once a virtual switch has been created, the next step is to configure a virtual machine. SR- IOV in Windows Server “8” is supported on x64 editions of Windows “8” as a guest operating system (as in Windows “8” Server, and Windows “8” client x64, but not x86 client).We have rearranged the settings for a virtual machine to introduce sub-nodes under a network adapter, one of which is the hardware acceleration node. At the bottom is a checkbox to enable SR-IOV.

QUESTION 25
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 contains a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can install Windows features on VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?
A. Hyper-V Administrators on Server1
B. Administrators on VM1
C. Server Operators on Server1
D. Power Users on VM1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The user has to be an administrator on VM1 to be able to install features.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.539

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules.
Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C.
You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?
A. Create a new rule.
B. Delete an existing rule.
C. Modify the action of the existing rules.
D. Add an exception to the existing rules.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The password policy for the domain is set to require a minimum password length of 10 characters. A user named User1 and a user named User2 work for the sales department. User1 is forced to create a domain password that has a minimum of 12 characters.User2 is forced to create a domain password that has a minimum of eight characters. You need to identify what forces the two users to have different password lengths. Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Management
B. Credential Manager
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Security Configuration Wizard (SCW)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In Windows Server 2008, you can use fine-grained password policies to specify multiple password policies and apply different password restrictions and account lockout policies to different sets of users within a single domain. For example, to increase the security of privileged accounts, you can apply stricter settings to the privileged accounts and then apply less strict settings to the accounts of other users. Or in some cases, you may want to apply a special password policy for accounts whose passwords are synchronized with other data sources. This is found in the Active Directory Administrative Center. You can use Active Directory Administrative Center to perform the following Active Directory administrative tasks: Create new user accounts or manage existing user accounts Create new groups or manage existing groups Create new computer accounts or manage existing computer accounts Create new organizational units (OUs) and containers or manage existing OUs Connect to one or several domains or domain controllers in the same instance of Active Directory Administrative Center, and view or manage the directory information for those domains or domain controllers

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains user accounts and computer accounts.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the domain.GP1 contains Computer Configuration settings and User Configuration settings.
You need to prevent the User Configuration settings in GP1 from being applied to users. The solution must ensure that the Computer Configuration settings in GP1 are applied to all client computers. What should you configure?
A. The GPO Status
B. The Block Inheritance feature
C. The Group Policy loopback processing mode
D. The Enforced setting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Microsoft 70-410 exam questions and answers provides you everything you will need to take your Microsoft 70-410 dumps actual questions test and go beyond the passing score. The number one name in updated test questions, Microsoft 70-410 dumps exam questions and answers from pass4itsure has built its reputation on helping you clear 70-410 dumps Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 exam with ease.

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Add, remove, and resize logical volumes

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Diagnose and correct networking service problems where SELinux contexts are interfering with proper operation

7, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 Configuring a Network Installation Configuring Partitions, RAID, and LVM The CUPS Printing System Automating System Administration: cron and at Network Authentication Configuration: NIS and LDAP Filesystem Management and the Automounter User Account Management, The Basic User Environment, Setting Up and Managing Disk Quotas Creating and Maintaining Special Groups The Red Hat Package Manager, More RPM Commands New Kernels, the Easy Way Adding and Removing RPM Packages with yum and pirut, Managing Updates with Pup and the Red Hat Network (RHN) New Kernels, the Easy Way; Kernel Sources Configuring Partitions, 2 2 7 7 6

329, 443, 493, 557, 585, 613, 649, 691

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RHCT Installation and Configuration Skills Perform network OS installation Implement a custom partitioning scheme Configure printing Configure the scheduling of tasks using cron and at Attach system to a network directory service, such as NIS or LDAP Configure autofs Add and manage users, groups, and quotas, and File Access Control Lists Configure filesystem permissions for collaboration Install and update packages using rpm Properly update the kernel package Configure the system to update/install packages from remote repositories using yum or pup Modify the system boot loader Implement software RAID at install-

81 96 341 354 313

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4 6

200 273, 285, 290 301 222, 227 388 238, 234

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8 2, 8

388, 392 96, 410

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This document is created with trial version of CHM2PDF Pilot 2.15.72. time and runtime RAID, and LVM; Advanced
Partitioning: Software RAID Use /proc/sys and sysctl to modify and set kernel runtime parameters Use scripting to automate system maintenance tasks RHCE Installation and Configuration Skills For HTTP/HTTPS, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For SMB, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For NFS, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For FTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For Web proxy, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For SMTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For IMAP/IMAPS/POP3, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and userbased security For SSH, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For DNS (caching name server, slave name server), install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and userbased security For NTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security Configure hands-free installation using Kickstart Implement logical volumes at install-time Use iptables to implement packet filtering and/or NAT The Apache Web Server, Virtual Hosts, Apache Access Configuration Samba Services The Basics of the Kernel Automating System Administration: cron and at 9 8 7 444, 466, 456 516 377 329 * * *

10

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Configuring a Network File System (NFS) Server, Client-side NFS The File Transfer Protocol and vsFTPd

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494, 509

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512

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The Squid Web Cache Proxy

9

476

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Electronic Mail (entire chapter)

12

585

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Reception with Dovecot

12

589

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The Secure Shell Package

13

620

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Domain Name Service (entire chapter)

11

557

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The Network Time Protocol (NTP)

13

634

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Using Kickstart to Automate Installation Configuring Partitions, RAID, and LVM Firewalls and Packet Filtering using netfilter, Network Address Translation Pluggable Authentication Modules

5 2 15

244 96 697, 703

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Use PAM to implement user-level restrictions

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305

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This document is created with trial version of CHM2PDF Pilot 2.15.72.

This document is created with trial version of CHM2PDF Pilot 2.15.72.

Chapter 1: RHCE Prerequisites
Overview
The Red Hat exams are an advanced challenge. As both the RHCE and RHCT courses specify a number of prerequisite skills, this book assumes that you know some basics about Linux. This chapter covers the prerequisite topics for Red Hat’s RH300 course in a minimum of detail, with references to other books and sources for more information. It also covers the related prerequisites as defined in the Red Hat Exam Prep guide. Unlike those in other chapters and other books in this series, the questions in this chapter include a number of “zingers” that go beyond the chapter’s content. These questions will help determine whether you have the prerequisite skills necessary to handle the remaining chapters. If you’re serious about the RHCE and RHCT exams, this chapter should be just a review. In fact, for any user serious about Linux, this chapter should be trivial. Linux gurus should recognize that I’ve “oversimplified” a number of explanations; my intention is to keep this chapter as short as possible. However, it is okay if you do not feel comfortable with a few topics in this chapter. In fact, it’s quite natural that many experienced Linux administrators don’t use every one of the prerequisite topics in their everyday work. Many candidates are able to fill in the gaps in their knowledge with some self-study and practice. If you’re new to Linux or Unix, this chapter will not be enough for you. It’s not possible to provide sufficient detail, at least in a way that can be understood by newcomers to Linux and other Unix-based operating systems. If, after reading this chapter, you find gaps in your knowledge, refer to one of the following guides:

The Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 documentation guides, available online from  . Hacking Linux Exposed, Third Edition: Linux Security Secrets and Solutions, by Casarik, Hatch, Lee, and Kurtz, gives you a detailed look at how to secure your Linux system and networks in every possible way. Mastering Fedora Core 5, by Michael Jang, covers the distribution that Red Hat used as one of the testbeds for RHEL 5.

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