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VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy Skills 5V0-42.21 exam, what must you know?
Important knowledge points, organized as follows:
Exam Code: 5V0-42.21 Full name: VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy Skills Related Certification: VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy 2022 language: English Number of questions: 52 Format: single and multiple-choice, proctored Passing Score: VMware exams are scored on a scale of 100-500, with a passing score of 300 Exam time: 115 minutes Cost: $250 (in the US) Exam Resources: Connect with the VMware Community Discuss certification-related topics Learn more with VMware Customer Contact Find VMware Official Books Purchase official VMware training materials
Are you wondering what the VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy 2021 certification looks like?
Speaking of the 5V0-42.21 exam, it must be reminiscent of the VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy 2021 certification, and the two are related.
5V0-42.21 free dumps  updated for passing VMware SD-WAN Design and Deploy Skills exam:
QUESTION # 1
Which VMware SR-WAN component runs the Deep Application Recognition Engine?
A. VMware SD WAN Orchestrator B. VMware SD-WAN Controller C. VMware SD-WAN Gateway D. VMware SD-WAN Edge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION # 2
Which statement is correct about VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator user roles and their associate privileges?
A. Customer Support User can view and manage then company\\’s network B. Standard Admin User can view but cannot manage their customer. C. Superuser: User can view but cannot create additional admin. D. Enterprise read only: User can view but not modify configurations.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An MSP is designing a solution for a merger of Customer A and Customer B to Customer A\’s enterprise. Due to overlapping IP addresses and security requirements, the segments with the same names between Customer A and Customer A cannot be merged. Based on the graphic and the requirements, how many new segments need to be configured in the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator?
A. 4 segments B. 2 segments C. 6 segments D. 5 segments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 4
An Enterprise customer just acquired a new company, and the Network Enterprise administrator was tasked to integrate over 20 new branches into their existing SD-WAN network. However, these branches have overlapping IPs with the existing branches subnets.
A. Configure a NAT hand off rule at the VMware SD WAN gateway assigned to these new blanches, translating the new branch subnets into a new nan-overlapping subnet B. Configure a LAN-side NAT rule at the branch device settings, translating its subnets into a new non-overlapping subnet C. Configure a NAT firewall rule in each branch, translating its subnets into a new non-overlapping subnet D. Configure a policy based NAT tor each branch translating its subnets Into a new non-overlapping subnet
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
Which VMware SD-WAN Edge High Availability deployment is being used”?
A. Enhanced HA B. Fault Domain HA C. VRRP HA D. Standard HA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 6
A service provider wants to offer a common service from its data center via VMware SD-WAN Partner Gateway to many customers with overlapping IP addresses. Which configuration must be implemented?
A. Define multiple segments tor each customer B. Enable NAT hand off under hand off static routes configuration C. Enable tag type QinQ under hand off interface configuration D. Configure source policy-based NAT under business- policies configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 7
A customer would like to ensure that the traffic towards the Partner Gateway does not exceed a certain bandwidth. Which feature should be used?
A. Modify the SD WAN Traffic Class and Weight Mapping B. Enable the SD-WAN Overlay Rate-Limit. C. Change the application priority to low. D. Enable the rate limit under a new custom Business Policy Rule.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 8
What Is a typical use case for the deployment of a VMware SU-WAN Partner Gateway?
A. Provide connectivity between multiple enterprise customers over private circuits B. Get improved flow analytics for all traffic in the SD-WAN network C. Interconnect branches/remote sites of a single enterprise customer to the internet D. Provide mite transport m a service provider backbone tor interconnecting a global customer SD- WAN branches.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 9
A customer is using VMware vSphere in their data center. An administrator is asked to deploy SD- WAN Edges for a Proof of Concept as soon as possible. Which deployment option is the roost cost and time effective?
A. Deploy a virtual appliance on ESXi B. Purchase bare metal Edge C. Deploy a virtual appliance in AWS D. Deploy a virtual appliance on KVM
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 10
A network architect is designing a VMware SD-WAN architect for customer using VMware hosted VCO and VCGs, white VCEs will be deployed at the customer\’s branches and data centers. The network architect would like to achieve control plane redundancy. Which action, if any, should be taken to meet this goal?
A. Multiple VCGs are automatically assigned to every VCE and control plane on VCUs is always enabled, so control plane redundancy has been taken care of already B. Multiple VCFs at data centers can be contoured to function as route reflectors to achieve control plane redundancy. C. VCGs automatically assigned to a VCF. do not participate in control plane At least two dedicated Controllers should be manually assigned for each VCGs to achieve control plane redundancy. D. VCGs automatically assigned to a VCE do not participate in control plane At least two dedicated Controllers should be manually assigned for the customer to achieve control plane redundancy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION # 11
A service provider needs to upgrade a gateway to a new software version. Which step in needed to complete the upgrade process?
A. Re-assign the Gateway to a new gateway Pool with the appropriate software version, and then run `sudo apt-get update\’\’ from the Gateway console.
B. Create a new disk partition to save the new software image to, modify the boot order via the Gateway BIOS to boot to the new partition, and then reboot the gateway.
C. From the Orchestrator, select the check-box next to the appropriate gateway, choose `\’Assign Software image”, and then select the version for the upgrade.
D. Copy the new image to/var/lib/velocloud/software_update.tar, and then run the upgrade the script from the console.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION # 12
What is considered a typical VMware SD-WAN use case?
A. Provide a distributed (per device) commands line interface (CLI) based configurations to implement complex network design integration options. B. Provide high speed layer 2 data center interconnects. C. Provide cloud delivered central management Orchestrator to implement complex design network integration options. D. Provide management, control plane, and data forwarding from a single system to reduce complexly for the network administrator.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 13
A customer has a hybrid VMware SD-WAN deployment and wants to use the SD-WAN Service Reachable feature on the private WAN. What is the main dependency that must be met for the feature to work?
A. Internet reachability via the private WAN B. Gateway IPs must be routed in the overlay C. Default route learned via dynamic routing D. Static mute for gateway IPs on the edge
Completing these two points makes it easy to pass the 2V0-31.21 exam.
Newly released free dumps for you to practice:
What are the two prerequisites for setting up the multi-organization tenancy for vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)
A. VMware Identity Manager B. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager C. vRealize Automation Appliance D. vRealize Easy Installer E. SaltStack Config
Correct Answer: BC
After collecting a log bundle using the vracli CLI command, the resulting .tar file contains many paths and files. Where will the administrator find the logs related specifically to the embedded vRealize Orchestrator?
While deploying a virtual machine cloud template, an administrator encounters the following error:
Where should the administrator start to troubleshoot? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Projects B. Network Profiles C. Tags D. Cloud Zones
Correct Answer: C
An administrator creates a content source and would like to share all the imported cloud templates dynamically with the project members. Which content sharing option should the administrator select to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. All Content B. Static Content C. Content Sources D. Dynamic Content
Correct Answer: C
An IT Director wants to integrate existing Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates into a new vRealize Automation deployment. How can the administrator achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Deploy a Cloud Proxy into the appropriate region of the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account. B. Add content sources in Service Broker from the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account. C. Create and configure a custom integration into Cloud Assembly. D. Leverage Action Based Extensibility (ABX) to extend functionality, programmatically.
Correct Answer: B
The administrator has installed SaltStack Config using the “edu” tenant from vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager. How would the administrator access the SaltStack Config service?
A. Log in to HTTPS:// B. Log in to https://edu. C. login to https://salt. D. Log in to https://edu.
Correct Answer: B
Which two actions can be performed against a Cloud Assembly machine-based deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Run machine-level actions including adding a USB controller. B. Change lease for the deployment. C. Resize the deployment. D. Change machine IP address assignment to DHCP. E. Power off the deployment.
Correct Answer: CE
Which kubectl command should be run to find the Kubernetes authentication method? (Choose the best answer.)
A. kubectl describes pod B. kubectl –n prelude describe pod C. kubectl describes secrets D. kubectl explain
Correct Answer: C
Which vRealize Suite product helps an administrator understand the monetary impact of deployments and manage costs in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best answer.)
A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager B. vRealize Network Insight C. vRealize Operations D. vRealize Log Insight
Correct Answer: C
In vRealize Automation Cloud Assembly, what can administrators use Onboarding Plans to do? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Find the best cloud template to match to discovered virtual machines. B. View a list of virtual machines that have not yet been data-collected from a public cloud account. C. Identify virtual machines that were deployed using vRealize Automation. D. Identify virtual machines that have been data-collected from a configured cloud account but are not yet managed by vRealize Automation.
Correct Answer: D
An administrator will use the vRealize Automation Code Stream Smart Templates to trigger pipeline testing when there are code changes in GitHub. Which template should the administrator use? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Continuous Delivery B. Cloud Template C. Blank Canvas D. Continuous Integration
Correct Answer: D
What functionality does a Virtual Private Zone offer to a service provider administrator?
A. Continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) B. Aggregation of services in a single portal C. Infrastructure resource allocation D. Configuration management of cloud templates
As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account. Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Cloud Assembly Administrator B. Cloud Assembly User C. Orchestrator Administrator D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator
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What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?
A. dBi B. EIRP C. mW D. dBm
Correct Answer: C
Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \\’dBi\\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.
What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?
A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks. B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. C. To attach and register clients to the fabric. D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B
Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?
A. ETR B. ITR C. Proxy ETR D. Proxy ITR
Correct Answer: C
What is the wireless received signal strength indicator?
A. The value given to the strength of the wireless signal received compared to the noise level B. The value of how strong the wireless signal Is leaving the antenna using transmit power, cable loss, and antenna gain C. The value of how much wireless signal is lost over a defined amount of distance D. The value of how strong a tireless signal is receded, measured in dBm
Correct Answer: D
RSSI, or “Received Signal Strength Indicator,” is a measurement of how well your device can hear a signal from an access point or router. It\\’s a value that is useful for determining if you have enough signal to get a good wireless connection.
This value is measured in decibels (dBm) from 0 (zero) to -120 (minus 120). The closer to 0 (zero) the stronger the signal is which means it\\’s better, typically voice networks require a – 65db or better signal level while a data network needs 80db or better.
Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?
A. vBond B. vEdge C. vSmart D. vManange
Correct Answer: D
The primary components for the Cisco SD-WAN solution consist of the vManage network management system (management plane), the vSmart controller (control plane), the vBond orchestrator (orchestration plane), and the vEdge router (data plane). + vManage ?This centralized network management system provides a GUI interface to easily monitor, configure, and maintain all Cisco SD-WAN devices and links in the underlay and overlay network.
+ vSmart controller ?This software-based component is responsible for the centralized control plane of the SD-WAN network. It establishes a secure connection to each vEdge router and distributes routes and policy information via the Overlay Management Protocol (OMP), acting as a route reflector. It also orchestrates the secure data plane connectivity between the vEdge routers by distributing crypto key information, allowing for a very scalable, IKE-less architecture.
+ vBond orchestrator ?This software-based component performs the initial authentication of vEdge devices and orchestrates vSmart and vEdge connectivity. It also has an important role in enabling the communication of devices that sit behind Network Address Translation (NAT).
+ vEdge router ?This device, available as either a hardware appliance or software-based router, sits at a physical site or in the cloud and provides secure data plane connectivity among the sites over one or more WAN transports. It is responsible for traffic forwarding, security, encryption, Quality of Service (QoS), routing protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and more.
By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 16 use?
A. c0:41:43:64:13:10 B. 00:00:0c 07:ac:10 C. 00:05:5c:07:0c:16 D. 05:00:0c:07:ac:16
Correct Answer: B
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?
A. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver. C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers. D. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver.
Correct Answer: A
What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process?
A. unicast discovery request to the first WLC that resolves the domain name B. broadcast discovery request C. join request to all the WLCs D. unicast discovery request to each WLC
Correct Answer: A
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring B. It can measure MOS C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: DE
IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, to increase productivity, to lower operational costs, and to reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs uses active traffic monitoringhe generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manneror measuring network performance.
Being Layer-2 transport independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to- end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience.
A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?
A. Fast Transition B. Central Web Authentication C. Cisco Centralized Key Management D. Identity PSK
Correct Answer: D
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor C. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default D. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing E. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
Correct Answer: BE
EIGRP provides a mechanism to load balance over unequal cost paths (or called unequal cost load balancing) through the “variance” command. In other words, EIGRP will install all paths with metric
An engineer is implementing MPLS OAM to monitor traffic within the MPLS domain. Which action must the engineer perform to prevent from being forwarded beyond the service provider domain when the LSP is down?
A. Disable IP redirects only on outbound interfaces. B. Implement the destination address for the LSP echo request packet in the 127.x.y.z/8 network. C. Disable IP redirects on all ingress interfaces. D. Configure a private IP address as the destination address of the headend router of Cisco MPLS TE.
Correct Answer: C
In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?
A. NSF/NSR B. SSO C. HSRP D. VRRP
Correct Answer: B
Stateful Switchover (SSO) provides protection for network edge devices with dual Route Processors (RPs) that represent a single point of failure in the network design, and where an outage might result in loss of service for customers.
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I would like to share some of the learning materials for the Microsoft SC-300 and how I found them. How do I pass the exam? First of all, you need to read the official Microsoft SC-300 profile. But beware, some are outdated. Second, complete the course on the Microsoft SC-300 exam. Because it provides a good introduction to most of what you need to know. Finally, the SC-300 practice test was completed. That’s also the most important thing. When you complete the test, you will see a very detailed explanation of each correct/incorrect answer. This is very important for you to have knowledge. After some practice exams, you’ll think the SC-300 isn’t that difficult.
Microsoft Role-based SC-300 practice test newly published
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You implement entitlement management to provide resource access to users at a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam uses a domain named fabrikam.com. Fabrikam users must be removed automatically from the tenant when access is no longer required.
You need to configure the following settings: 1. Block external users from signing in to this directory: No 2. Remove external user: Yes 3. Number of days before removing the external user from this directory: 90 What should you configure on the Identity Governance blade?
HOTSPOT You need to implement the planned changes and technical requirements for the marketing department. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that syncs to an Active Directory forest. You discover that when a user account is disabled in Active Directory, the disabled user can still authenticate to Azure AD for up to 30 minutes.
You need to ensure that when a user account is disabled in Active Directory, the user account is immediately prevented from authenticating to Azure AD. Solution: You configure pass-through authentication. Does this meet the goal?
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You have 100 IT administrators who are organized into 10 departments. You create the access review shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You discover that all access review requests are received by Megan Bowen. You need to ensure that the manager of each department receives the access reviews of their respective department. Solution: You add each manager as a fallback reviewer. Does this meet the goal?
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that syncs to an Active Directory domain. The on-premises network contains a VPN server that authenticates to the on-premises Active Directory domain. The The VPN server does NOT support Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA).
You need to recommend a solution to provide Azure MFA for VPN connections. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD Application Proxy B. an Azure AD Password Protection proxy C. Network Policy Server (NPS) D. a pass-through authentication proxy
You configure a new Microsoft 365 tenant to use the default domain name of contoso.com. You need to ensure that you can control access to Microsoft 365 resources by using conditional access policies. What should you do first?
A. Disable the User consent settings. B. Disable Security defaults. C. Configure a multi-factor authentication (MFA) registration policy. D. Configure password protection for Windows Server Active Directory.
What should you configure?
A. an access policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security. B. Terms and conditions in Microsoft Endpoint Manager. C. a conditional access policy in Azure AD D. a compliance policy in Microsoft Endpoint Manager
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant syncs to an on-premises Active Directory domain.
You plan to create an emergency-access administrative account named Emergency1. Emergency1 will be assigned the Global administrator role in Azure AD. Emergency1 will be used in the event of Azure AD functionality failures and on-premises infrastructure failures.
You need to reduce the likelihood that Emergency1 will be prevented from signing in during an emergency. What should you do?
A. Configure Azure Monitor to generate an alert if Emergency1 is modified or signs in. B. Require Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) activation of the Global administrator role for Emergency1. C. Configure a conditional access policy to restrict sign-in locations for Emergency1 to only the corporate network. D. Configure a conditional access policy to require multi-factor authentication (MFA) for Emergency1.
Correct Answer: A
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to review the Azure AD sign-in logs to investigate sign-ins that occurred in the past. For how long does Azure AD store events in the sign-in logs?
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Active Directory forest that syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You discover that when a user account is disabled in Active Directory, the disabled user can still authenticate to Azure AD for up to 30 minutes.
You need to ensure that when a user account is disabled in Active Directory, the user account is immediately prevented from authenticating to Azure AD. Solution: You configure Azure AD Password Protection. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the users shown in the following table.
User1 is the owner of Group1. You create an access review that has the following settings: Users to review: Members of a group Scope: Everyone Group: Group1 Reviewers: Members (self) Which users can perform access reviews for User3?
A. User1, User2, and User3 B. User3 only C. User1 only D. User1 and User2 only
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You have 100 IT administrators who are organized into 10 departments. You create the access review shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You discover that all access review requests are received by Megan Bowen. You need to ensure that the manager of each department receives the access reviews of their respective department. Solution: You set Reviewers to Member (self).
HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft 365 tenant and an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. You deploy Azure AD Connect by using Express Settings.
You need to configure self-service password reset (SSPR) to meet the following requirements: 1. When users reset their password, they must be prompted to respond to a mobile app notification or answer three predefined security questions. 2. Passwords must be synced between the tenant and the domain regardless of where the password was reset.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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2)- Updated DP-203 Dumps Practice Exam Questions Q1-Q15:
QUESTION 1 #
HOTSPOT You are planning the deployment of Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2. You have the following two reports that will access the data lake:
Report1: Reads three columns from a file that contains 50 columns. Report2: Queries a single record based on a timestamp. You need to recommend in which format to store the data in the data lake to support the reports. The solution must minimize read times.
What should you recommend for each report? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Report1: CSV CSV: The destination writes records as delimited data. Report2: AVRO AVRO supports timestamps. Not Parquet, TSV: Not options for Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2.
DRAG-DROP You need to ensure that the Twitter feed data can be analyzed in the dedicated SQL pool. The solution must meet the customer sentiment analytic requirements.
Which three Transact-SQL DDL commands should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Scenario: Allow Contoso users to use PolyBase in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool to query the content of the data records that host the Twitter feeds. Data must be protected by using row-level security (RLS). The users must be authenticated by using their own Azure AD credentials.
Box 1: CREATE EXTERNAL DATA SOURCE External data sources are used to connect to storage accounts.
Box 2: CREATE EXTERNAL FILE FORMAT CREATE EXTERNAL FILE FORMAT creates an external file format object that defines external data stored in Azure Blob Storage or Azure Data Lake Storage. Creating an external file format is a prerequisite for creating an external table.
Box 3: CREATE EXTERNAL TABLE AS SELECT
When used in conjunction with the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement, selecting from an external table imports data into a table within the SQL pool. In addition to the COPY statement, external tables are useful for loading data.
Incorrect Answers: CREATE EXTERNAL TABLE The CREATE EXTERNAL TABLE command creates an external table for Synapse SQL to access data stored in Azure Blob Storage or Azure Data Lake Storage.
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. You need to ensure that data in the pool is encrypted at rest. The solution must NOT require modifying applications that query the data. What should you do?
A. Enable encryption at rest for the Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. B. Enable Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for the pool. C. Use a customer-managed key to enable double encryption for the Azure Synapse workspace. D. Create an Azure key vault in the Azure subscription to grant access to the pool.\
Correct Answer: B
Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) helps protect against the threat of malicious activity by encrypting and decrypting your data at rest. When you encrypt your database, associated backups and transaction log files are encrypted without requiring any changes to your applications.
TDE encrypts the storage of an entire database by using a symmetric key called the database encryption key.
You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following Transact-SQL statement.
You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements: Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees. Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company. Provide fast lookup of the managers\’ attributes such as name and job title.
Which column should you add to the table?
A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL D. [ManagerName] varchar NULL Correct Answer: A
HOTSPOT You have an Azure event hub named retail hub that has 16 partitions. Transactions are posted to the retail hub. Each transaction includes the transaction ID, the individual line items, and the payment details. The transaction ID is used as the partition key.
You are designing an Azure Stream Analytics job to identify potentially fraudulent transactions at a retail store. The job will use the retail hub as the input. The job will output the transaction ID, the individual line items, the payment details, a fraud score, and a fraud indicator.
You plan to send the output to an Azure event hub named fraud hub. You need to ensure that the fraud detection solution is highly scalable and processes transactions as quickly as possible.
How should you structure the output of the Stream Analytics job? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Box 1: 16 For Event Hubs, you need to set the partition key explicitly. An embarrassingly parallel job is the most scalable scenario in Azure Stream Analytics. It connects one partition of the input to one instance of the query to one partition of the output. Box 2: Transaction ID
HOTSPOT You have a self-hosted integration runtime in Azure Data Factory. The current status of the integration runtime has the following configurations:
Status: Running Type: Self-Hosted Version: 4.4.7292.1 Running / Registered Node(s): 1/1 High Availability Enabled: False Linked Count: 0 Queue Length: 0 Average Queue Duration. 0.00s The integration runtime has the following node details:
Name: X-M Status: Running Version: 4.4.7292.1 Available Memory: 7697MB CPU Utilization: 6% Network (In/Out): 1.21KBps/0.83KBps Concurrent Jobs (Running/Limit): 2/14
Role: Dispatcher/Worker Credential Status: In Sync Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: fail until the node comes back online We see: High Availability Enabled: False Note Higher availability of the self-hosted integration runtime so that it\\’s no longer the single point of failure in your big data solution or cloud data integration with Data Factory.
Box 2: lowered We see: Concurrent Jobs (Running/Limit): 2/14 CPU Utilization: 6% Note: When the processor and available RAM aren\\’t well utilized, but the execution of concurrent jobs reaches a node\\’s limits, scale up by increasing the number of concurrent jobs that a node can run
HOTSPOT You have a data model that you plan to implement in a data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics as shown in the the following exhibit.
All the dimension tables will be less than 2 GB after compression, and the fact table will be approximately 6 TB. Which type of table should you use for each table? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 8 #
You have a partitioned table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. You need to design queries to maximize the benefits of partition elimination. What should you include in the Transact-SQL queries?
A. JOIN B. WHERE C. DISTINCT D. GROUP BY
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 #
You need to schedule an Azure Data Factory pipeline to execute when a new file arrives in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container.
Which type of trigger should you use?
A. on-demand B. tumbling window C. schedule D. event
Correct Answer: D
Event-driven architecture (EDA) is a common data integration pattern that involves production, detection, consumption, and reaction to events.
Data integration scenarios often require Data Factory customers to trigger pipelines based on events happening in the storage account, such as the arrival or deletion of a file in the Azure Blob Storage account.
You are designing an enterprise data warehouse in Azure Synapse Analytics that will contain a table named Customers. Customers will contain credit card information.
You need to recommend a solution to provide salespeople with the ability to view all the entries in Customers. The the solution must prevent all the salespeople from viewing or inferring the credit card information.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. data masking B. Always Encrypted C. column-level security D. row-level security
Correct Answer: A
SQL Database dynamic data masking limits sensitive data exposure by masking it to non-privileged users. The Credit card masking method exposes the last four digits of the designated fields and adds a constant string as a prefix in the form of a credit card.
HOTSPOT You have an on-premises data warehouse that includes the following fact tables. Both tables have the following columns: DateKey, ProductKey, RegionKey. There are 120 unique product keys and 65 unique region keys.
Queries that use the data warehouse take a long time to complete. You plan to migrate the solution to use Azure Synapse Analytics. You need to ensure that the Azure-based solution optimizes query performance and minimizes processing skew. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 #
You have an Azure Synapse workspace named MyWorkspace that contains an Apache Spark database named mytestdb.
You run the following command in an Azure Synapse Analytics Spark pool in MyWorkspace. CREATE TABLE mytestdb.myParquetTable( EmployeeID int, EmployeeName string, EmployeeStartDate date) USING Parquet You then use Spark to insert a row into mytestdb. myParquetTable. The row contains the following data.
One minute later, you execute the following query from a serverless SQL pool in MyWorkspace. SELECT EmployeeID FROM mytestdb.dbo.myParquetTable WHERE name = \\’Alice\\’; What will be returned by the query?
A. 24 B. an error C. a null value
Correct Answer: A
Once a database has been created by a Spark job, you can create tables in it with Spark that use Parquet as the storage format. Table names will be converted to lower case and need to be queried using the lower case name.
These tables will immediately become available for querying by any of the Azure Synapse workspace Spark pools. They can also be used from any of the Spark jobs subject to permissions.
Note: For external tables, since they are synchronized to serverless SQL pool asynchronously, there will be a delay until they appear.
HOTSPOT You are building an Azure Stream Analytics job to identify how much time a user spends interacting with a feature on a webpage.
The job receives events based on user actions on the webpage. Each row of data represents an event. Each event has a type of either \\’start\\’ or \\’end\\’.
You need to calculate the duration between start and end events. How should you complete the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Box 1: DATEDIFF DATEDIFF function returns the count (as a signed integer value) of the specified datepart boundaries crossed between the specified startdate and enddate. Syntax: DATEDIFF ( datepart , startdate, enddate )
Box 2: LAST The LAST function can be used to retrieve the last event within a specific condition. In this example, a condition is an event of type Start, partitioning the search by PARTITION BY user and feature. This way, every user and feature is treated independently when searching for the Start event. LIMIT DURATION limits the search back in time to 1 hour between the End and Start events.
Example: SELECT [user], feature, DATEDIFF( second, LAST(Time) OVER (PARTITION BY [user], feature LIMIT DURATION(hour, 1) WHEN Event = \\’start\\’), Time) as duration FROM input TIMESTAMP BY Time WHERE Event = \\’end\\’
HOTSPOT You are designing a monitoring solution for a fleet of 500 vehicles. Each vehicle has a GPS tracking device that sends data to an Azure event hub once per minute.
You have a CSV file in an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container. The file maintains the expected geographical area in which each vehicle should be.
You need to ensure that when a GPS position is outside the expected area, a message is added to another event hub for processing within 30 seconds. The solution must minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Box 1: Azure Stream Analytics
Box 2: Hopping Hopping window functions hop forward in time by a fixed period. It may be easy to think of them as Tumbling windows that can overlap and be emitted more often than the window size. Events can belong to more than one Hopping window result set. To make a Hopping window the same as a Tumbling window, specify the hop size to be the same as the window size.
HOTSPOT You need to design the partitions for the product sales transactions. The solution must meet the sales transaction dataset requirements.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Box 1: Sales date Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include: Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month. Boundary values must belong to the partition on the right.
Box 2: An Azure Synapse Analytics Dedicated SQL pool Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include: Ensure that data storage costs and performance are predictable. The size of a dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) is determined by Data Warehousing Units (DWU).
Dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) stores data in relational tables with columnar storage. This format significantly reduces the data storage costs, and improves query performance. Synapse analytics dedicated SQL pool
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QUESTION 1 Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), what must be included in a written agreement between the controller and processor in relation to processing conducted on the controller\\’s behalf? A. An obligation on the processor to report any personal data breach to the controller within 72 hours. B. An obligation on both parties to report any serious personal data breach to the supervisory authority. C. An obligation on both parties to agree to a termination of the agreement if the other party is responsible for a personal data breach. D. An obligation on the processor to assist the controller in complying with the controller\\’s obligations to notify the supervisory authority about personal data breaches. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is the main reason to begin with 3-5 key metrics during the program development process? A. To avoid undue financial costs. B. To keep the focus on the main organizational objectives. C. To minimize selective data use. D. To keep the process limited to as few people as possible. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down. Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Medialite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Medialite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.” You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps. The company has achieved a level of privacy protection that established new best practices for the industry. What is a logical next step to help ensure a high level of protection? A. Brainstorm methods for developing an enhanced privacy framework B. Develop a strong marketing strategy to communicate the company\\’s privacy practices C. Focus on improving the incident response plan in preparation for any breaks in protection D. Shift attention to privacy for emerging technologies as the company begins to use them Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: It\\’s just what you were afraid of. Without consulting you, the information technology director at your organization launched a new initiative to encourage employees to use personal devices for conducting business. The initiative made purchasing a new, high-specification laptop computer an attractive option, with discounted laptops paid for as a payroll deduction spread over a year of paychecks. The organization is also paying the sales taxes. It\\’s a great deal, and after a month, more than half the organization\\’s employees have signed on and acquired new laptops. Walking through the facility, you see them happily customizing and comparing notes on their new computers, and at the end of the day, most take their laptops with them, potentially carrying personal data to their homes or other unknown locations. It\\’s enough to give you data-protection nightmares, and you\\’ve pointed out to the information technology Director and many others in the organization the potential hazards of this new practice, including the inevitability of eventual data loss or theft. Today you have in your office a representative of the organization\\’s marketing department who shares with you, reluctantly, a story with potentially serious consequences. The night before, straight from work, with laptop in hand, he went to the Bull and Horn Pub to play billiards with his friends. A fine night of sport and socializing began, with the laptop “safely” tucked on a bench, beneath his jacket. Later that night, when it was time to depart, he retrieved the jacket, but the laptop was gone. It was not beneath the bench or on another bench nearby. The waitstaff had not seen it. His friends were not playing a joke on him. After a sleepless night, he confirmed it this morning, stopping by the pub to talk to the cleanup crew. They had not found it. The laptop was missing. Stolen, it seems. He looks at you, embarrassed and upset. You ask him if the laptop contains any personal data from clients, and, sadly, he nods his head, yes. He believes it contains files on about 100 clients, including names, addresses and governmental identification numbers. He sighs and places his head in his hands in despair. In order to determine the best course of action, how should this incident most productively be viewed? A. As the accidental loss of personal property containing data that must be restored. B. As a potential compromise of personal information through unauthorized access. C. As an incident that requires the abrupt initiation of a notification campaign. D. As the premeditated theft of company data, until shown otherwise. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Perhaps Jack Kelly should have stayed in the U.S. He enjoys a formidable reputation inside the company, Special Handling Shipping, for his work in reforming certain “rogue” offices. Last year, news broke that a police sting operation had revealed a drug ring operating in the Providence, Rhode Island office in the United States. Video from the office\\’s video surveillance cameras leaked to news operations showed a drug exchange between Special Handling staff and undercover officers. In the wake of this incident, Kelly had been sent to Providence to change the “hands off” culture that upper management believed had let the criminal elements conduct their illicit transactions. After a few weeks under Kelly\\’s direction, the office became a model of efficiency and customer service. Kelly monitored his workers\\’ activities using the same cameras that had recorded the illegal conduct of their former coworkers. Now Kelly has been charged with turning around the office in Cork, Ireland, another trouble spot. The company has received numerous reports of the staff leaving the office unattended. When Kelly arrived, he found that even when present, the staff often spent their days socializing or conducting personal business on their mobile phones. Again, he observed their behaviors using surveillance cameras. He issued written reprimands to six staff members based on the first day of video alone. Much to Kelly\\’s surprise and chagrin, he and the company are now under investigation by the Data Protection Commissioner of Ireland for allegedly violating the privacy rights of employees. Kelly was told that the company\\’s license for the cameras listed facility security as their main use, but he does not know why this matters. He has pointed out to his superiors that the company\\’s training programs on privacy protection and data collection mention nothing about surveillance video. You are a privacy protection consultant, hired by the company to assess this incident, report on the legal and compliance issues, and recommend next steps. What does this example best illustrate about training requirements for privacy protection? A. Training needs must be weighed against financial costs. B. Training on local laws must be implemented for all personnel. C. Training must be repeated frequently to respond to new legislation. D. Training must include assessments to verify that the material is mastered. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Natalia, CFO of the Nationwide Grill restaurant chain, had never seen her fellow executives so anxious. Last week, a data processing firm used by the company reported that its system may have been hacked, and customer data such as names, addresses, and birthdays may have been compromised. Although the attempt was proven unsuccessful, the scare has prompted several Nationwide Grill executives to question the company\\’s privacy program at today\\’s meeting. Alice, a vice president, said that the incident could have opened the door to lawsuits, potentially damaging Nationwide Grill\\’s market position. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), Brendan, tried to assure her that even if there had been an actual breach, the chances of a successful suit against the company were slim. But Alice remained unconvinced. Spencer – a former CEO and currently a senior advisor – said that he had always warned against the use of contractors for data processing. At the very least, he argued, they should be held contractually liable for telling customers about any security incidents. In his view, Nationwide Grill should not be forced to soil the company name for a problem it did not cause. One of the business development (BD) executives, Haley, then spoke, imploring everyone to see reason. “Breaches can happen, despite organizations\\’ best efforts,” she remarked. “Reasonable preparedness is key.” She reminded everyone of the incident seven years ago when the large grocery chain Tinkerton\\’s had its financial information compromised after a large order of Nationwide Grill frozen dinners. As a longtime BD executive with a solid understanding of Tinkerton\\’s\\’s corporate culture, built up through many years of cultivating relationships, Haley was able to successfully manage the company\\’s incident response. Spencer replied that acting with reason means allowing security to be handled by the security functions within the company – not BD staff. In a similar way, he said, Human Resources (HR) needs to do a better job training employees to prevent incidents. He pointed out that Nationwide Grill employees are overwhelmed with posters, emails, and memos from both HR and the ethics department related to the company\\’s privacy program. Both the volume and the duplication of information means that it is often ignored altogether. Spencer said, “The company needs to dedicate itself to its privacy program and set regular in-person trainings for all staff once a month.” Alice responded that the suggestion, while well-meaning, is not practical. With many locations, local HR departments need to have flexibility with their training schedules. Silently, Natalia agreed. How could the objection to Spencer\\’s training suggestion be addressed? A. By requiring training only on an as-needed basis. B. By offering alternative delivery methods for trainings. C. By introducing a system of periodic refresher trainings. D. By customizing training based on length of employee tenure. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which of the following controls does the PCI DSS framework NOT require? A. Implement strong asset control protocols. B. Implement strong access control measures. C. Maintain an information security policy. D. Maintain a vulnerability management program. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers. Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that “appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin, Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down. Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Medialite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Medialite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.” You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps. You are charged with making sure that privacy safeguards are in place for new products and initiatives. What is the best way to do this? A. Hold a meeting with stakeholders to create an interdepartmental protocol for new initiatives B. Institute Privacy by Design principles and practices across the organization C. Develop a plan for introducing privacy protections into the product development stage D. Conduct a gap analysis after deployment of new products, then mend any gaps that are revealed Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements? A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties B. Look for overlaps in laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations, and inform stakeholders why they are applicable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: As the Director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development. You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear understanding of the need for change. Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place. Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective. You are left contemplating: What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention program? How can you build on your success? What are the next action steps? What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program being developed at Consolidated? A. Privacy by Design. B. Privacy Step Assessment. C. Information Security Planning. D. Innovation Privacy Standards. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. What is the most concerning limitation of the incident-response council? A. You convened it to diffuse blame B. The council has an overabundance of attorneys C. It takes eight hours of emails to come to a decision D. The leader just joined the company as a consultant Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you presume that data was lost. When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the data. The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints. You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification. The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth. You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards. Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000 people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will: 1. Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed. 2. Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier. 3. Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment. 4. Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates. 5. Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration. You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time an incident occurs. Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern? A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question: Ben works in the IT department of IgNight, Inc., a company that designs lighting solutions for its clients. Although IgNight\\’s customer base consists primarily of offices in the US, some individuals have been so impressed by the unique aesthetic and energy-saving design of the light fixtures that they have requested IgNight\\’s installations in their homes across the globe. One Sunday morning, while using his work laptop to purchase tickets for an upcoming music festival, Ben happens to notice some unusual user activity on company files. From a cursory review, all the data still appears to be where it is meant to be but he can\\’t shake off the feeling that something is not right. He knows that it is a possibility that this could be a colleague performing unscheduled maintenance, but he recalls an email from his company\\’s security team reminding employees to be on alert for attacks from a known group of malicious actors specifically targeting the industry. Ben is a diligent employee and wants to make sure that he protects the company but he does not want to bother his hard-working colleagues on the weekend. He is going to discuss the matter with this manager first thing in the morning but wants to be prepared so he can demonstrate his knowledge in this area and plead his case for a promotion. If this were a data breach, how is it likely to be categorized? A. Availability Breach. B. Authenticity Breach. C. Confidentiality Breach. D. Integrity Breach. Correct Answer: C
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Cisco 350-501 Practice testing questions from Youtube
An engineer configured multicast routing on client\\’s network. What is the effect of this multicast implementation? A. R2 floods information about R1 throughout the multicast domain. B. R2 is unable to share information because the ip pirn autorp listener command is missing. C. R1 floods information about R2 throughout the multicast domain. D. R2 is elected as the RP for this domain. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which utility must be used to locate MPLS faults? A. QoS B. MPLS LSP ping C. MPLStraceroute D. EEM Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this configuration to a router. Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP? A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface. B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally. C. Delete the static router ID. D. Configure the both keyword to enable LDP globally. Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. What is the URL used for with REST API? A. It is used to initiate an FTP session to save a running configuration of a device. B. It is used to send a message to the APIC to perform an operation on a managed object or class operator. C. It is used to contact a URL filter to determine the efficacy of a web address. D. It is used to send a TACACS + authentication request to a server. Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true? A. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because they have different IS-IS area types. B. The two routers successfully form a neighbor relationship. C. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because the authentication configuration is missing. D. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because their system IDs are different. Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true? A. R1 can support a peer that is configured for LDP SSO/NSF as the peer recovers from an outage. B. R1can support a graceful restart operation on the peer, even if graceful restart is disabled on the peer. C. R1 can failover to any peer. D. R1 can failover only to a peer that is configured for LDF SSO/NSF. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/kwoodwar/fsgr29s.html
Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which statement about this configuration is true? A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1. B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different interface. C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real interface. D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html
QUESTION 10 Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.) A. IP address B. subnet mask C. interface cost D. process ID E. area number F. hello timer setting Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 11 What is a role of NSO? A. It automates the deployment of access points with its built-in wireless LAN controller. B. It manages WAN infrastructure using a virtual switch. C. It provides full lifecycle management of a device. D. It resides on a hypervisor that runs the Windows OS. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 What does DWDM use to combine multiple optical signals? A. frequency B. IP protocols C. time slots D. wavelength Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 and its peer R2 reside on the same subnet in the network. If an engineer implements this configuration to R1, how does it make connections to R2? A. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password. B. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password. C. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password. D. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password. Correct Answer: D
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Real Microsoft Fundamentals MB-901 Practice Questions 1-13
Real Microsoft Fundamentals MB-901 Practice Questions 1-13
QUESTION 1 A company uses Dynamics 365 Marketing. The company uses a third-party app to send email surveys to prospects to better understand their business needs. There is currently no link to prospect records and users report that the survey management process is manual and is difficult to manage. You need to automate the survey process and streamline collection and analysis of responses. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a survey form in Dynamics 365 Marketing and create a campaign to send it to out and collect data. B. Use Power Automate to automatically send Forms Pro surveys. C. Use Forms Pro to compile results from the existing third-party app. D. Use Forms Pro to collect and analyze survey results. E. Create surveys in Dynamics 365 Marketing by using Questionnaire. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/forms-pro/get-started https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/forms-pro/send-survey-flow
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP A customer is investigating the insight capabilities of Dynamics 365. Match each app to its goal. Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate app from the column on the left to its goal on the right. Each app may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT A company sells and maintains heating and air conditioning equipment. The company uses Dynamics 365 Field Service. The company is evaluating Field Service Mobile for technicians. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 A service company has many agents who create cases. Case titles often use different words with the same meaning.The company wants to use artificial intelligence to quickly and accurately spot trends in service. You need to recommend a solution for the company. What should you recommend? A. Sales Insights B. Customer Service C. Customer Service Insights Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT A company wants to ensure they comply with common data privacy standards and regulations. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP A company plans to deploy Dynamics 365 Sales. Match each term to its definition. Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate deployment type from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each deployment type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance. The company conducts business in multiple countries/regions across Europe. You need to recommend solutions for setting up currency options. Which currency accounting types should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate currency accounting types to the correct requirements. Each currency accounting type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities. Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports. What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT A plumbing repair company uses Dynamics 365 Customer Service. The company wants to better serve customers by offering quicker response times and improving processes based on customer feedback. You need to recommend solutions for the company. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT A non-profit company is considering moving their Dynamics 365 solution from on-premises to online. You need to help the company understand where their data will be stored after the move and who will own the data. How should you respond? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT A company uses Dynamics 365 Field Service. The company plans to use built-in scheduling functionality. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 13 A medical clinic uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The clinic wants to rapidly implement a solution that optimizes coordination of care for patients. You need to recommend a solution for the clinic. What should you recommend? A. Canvas app B. Portal C. Healthcare Accelerator D. Insights Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/common-data-model/health-accelerator
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Practice Test! Cisco CCNP 300-615 Exam Questions And Answers Free Share
QUESTION 1 A fabric interconnect fails to start and the console displays the loader prompt. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.) A. Load an uncorrupt bootloader image. B. Load an uncorrupt kickstart image. C. Reconnect L1/L2 cables between the Fis. D. Reformat the fabric interconnect. E. Load the correct version of the boot image. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2 An engineer is troubleshooting a custom AV pair that was created by a client on an external authentication server to map a read-only role for a specific security domain. Which AV pair solves the problem? A. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1//Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 B. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Write_Role_1|Read_Role_2 C. shell=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 D. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2 Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager is being upgraded using the Auto Install feature, but the FSM fails. Which action resolves the issue? A. Acknowledge the primary fabric interconnect. B. Remove the service pack from the subordinate fabric interconnect. C. Clear the startup version of the default infrastructure pack. D. Upgrade the firmware of the infrastructure firmware by using the force option. Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to bind the Ethernet interface to vFC fails. Which action resolves the issue? A. Add the FCoE VLAN to the allowed VLAN list. B. Configure the FCoE VLAN that corresponds to the vFC VSAN as a private VLAN. C. Configure the interface as a trunk port. D. Configure the interface to use the native VLAN of the trunk port. Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. Interface fc1/5 is offline. Which action should be taken to troubleshoot the issue? A. Activate the correct zoneset for VSAN 100. B. Update the FLOGI database to contain the FLOGI entries for interface fc1/5 in VSAN 100. C. Update the FCNs database to contain names for VSAN 100. D. Configure the upstream ports and the server ports to be in VSAN 100. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. A remote device connected to fc 1/2 fails to come online. Which do you configure to resolve the issue?
A. remote and local ports to be in the correct VSAN B. local switch for NPV C. remote device for NPIV D. port on remote device as an f-port-channel Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the WWPNs on the left to the correct zones on the right.
QUESTION 8 A network administrator attempts to install an application in the Cisco NX-OS Guest shell and receives an error that there is not enough space on the disk. Which command must the administrator run to increase the disk space available in the Guest shell? A. guestshell growdisk rootfs [size-in-MB] B. guestshell pvextend rootfs [size-in-MB] C. guestshell resize rootfs [size-in-MB] D. guestshell resize2fs rootfs [size-in-MB] Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF adjacency between Router-A and Router-B cannot reach the FULL state. Which action resolves the issue? A. Adjust the MTU on Router-A to 1600. B. Disable the check of the MTU value. C. Set the OSPF media type to point-to-point. D. Adjust the MTU on Router-B to 1604. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 A customer configures HSRP between two data centers that are interconnected with OTV. The configuration succeeds, but traffic between two ESXi virtual hosts on the same site is routed suboptimally through the OTV overlay. Which two actions optimize the traffic? (Choose two.) A. Disable first-hop redundancy. B. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the OTV edge devices. C. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the ESXi vSwitch. D. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the ESXi vSwitch. E. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the OTV edge devices. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the actions from the left onto the faults that they resolve on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Refer to the exhibit. vPC between switch1 and switch2 is not working. Which two actions are needed to fix the problem? (Choose two.) A. Match vPC domain ID between the two devices. B. Configure IP address on the interface. C. Activate VLANs on the vPC. D. Configure vPC peer link and vPC peer keepalive correctly. E. Configure one of the switches as primary for the vPC. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 You must troubleshoot an issue with DAI on a Cisco Nexus switch. Drag and drop the DAI configuration steps from the left into the order they must be implemented in on the right.
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QUESTION 1 Which Splunk component consolidates the individual results and prepares reports in a distributed environment? A. Indexers B. Forwarder C. Search head D. Search peers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 When configuring HTTP Event Collector (HEC) input, how would one ensure the events have been indexed? A. Enable indexer acknowledgment. B. Enable forwarder acknowledgment. C. splunk check-integrity -index D. index=_internal component=ACK | stats count by host Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 3 After how many warnings within a rolling 30-day period will a license violation occur with an enforced Enterprise license? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 Which Splunk forwarder type allows parsing of data before forwarding to an indexer? A. Universal forwarder B. Parsing forwarder C. Heavy forwarder D. Advanced forwarder Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is a valid distribution search group? A)
A. option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 How is a remote monitor input distributed to forwarders? A. As an app. B. As a forward.conf file. C. As a monitor.conf file. D. As a forwarder monitor profile. Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 7 Which of the following statements accurately describes using SSL to secure the feed from a forwarder? A. It does not encrypt the certificate password. B. SSL automatically compresses the feed by default. C. It requires that the forwarder be set to compressed=true. D. It requires that the receiver be set to compression=true. Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 8 In which scenario would a Splunk Administrator want to enable a data integrity check when creating an index? A. To ensure that hot buckets are still open for writes and have not been forced to roll to a cold state B. To ensure that configuration files have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes C. To ensure that user passwords have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes. D. To ensure that data has not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the correct order of steps in Duo Multifactor Authentication? A. 1 Request Login 2. Connect to SAML server 3 Duo MFA 4 Create User session 5 Authentication Granted 6. Log into Splunk B. 1. Request Login 2 Duo MFA 3. Authentication Granted 4 Connect to SAML server 5. Log into Splunk 6. Create User session C. 1 Request Login 2 Check authentication / group mapping 3 Authentication Granted 4. Duo MFA 5. Create User session 6. Log into Splunk D. 1 Request Login 2 Duo MFA 3. Check authentication / group mapping 4 Create User session 5. Authentication Granted 6 Log into Splunk Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which Splunk indexer operating system platform is supported when sending logs from a Windows universal forwarder? A. Any OS platform B. Linux platform only C. Windows platform only. D. None of the above. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which feature in Splunk allows Event Breaking, Timestamp extractions, and any advanced configurations found in props.conf to be validated all through the UI? A. Apps B. Search C. Data preview D. Forwarder inputs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following enables compression for universal forwarders in outputs. conf ? A)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which setting in indexes. conf allows data retention to be controlled by time? A. maxDaysToKeep B. moveToFrozenAfter C. maxDataRetentionTime D. frozenTimePeriodlnSecs Correct Answer: D click here