These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!
Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam
Vendor: Microsoft Certifications: Windows Server 2012 Exam Code: 70-410 Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 Total Questions: 503 Q&As Updated on: Feb 17, 2017 Exam Information：https://www.passitdump.com/70-410.html
Install and configure servers (15–20%)
Install servers
Configure servers
Configure local storage
Configure server roles and features (15–20%)
Configure file and share access
Configure print and document services
Configure servers for remote management
Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)
Create and configure virtual machine settings
Create and configure virtual machine storage
reate and configure virtual networks
Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
Deploy and configure DNS service
Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)
Install domain controllers
Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)
Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)
Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
Configure security policies
Configure application restriction policies
Configure Windows Firewall
QUESTION 9 You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization Correct Answer: G QUESTION 15 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.
In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet Correct Answer: B
70-410 PDF: STUDY PLAN
Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.
Personally I’m going to stick together a personal rack at some point with the necessary 70-411 dumps hardware at home and I’m sure if you’re interested in becoming a Systems Specialist of any kind, the thought has crossed your mind as well.
Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.
The reason I chose to to pursue a track focusing on Server 2012 R2 is because it’s my favorite Microsoft server OS, mostly because I enjoy 70-411 vce. At one point, I didn’t see much value in pursuing it any further. I still have the book, use it for reference at work because I still have a 70-411 pdfsystem in production but all new servers I have deployed in the past 6 months.
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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers 70-532 Dumps Tests Detail: Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
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Skills Measured
This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.
NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
C. IIS logs
D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps
F. Application logs
Answer: D,E
NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B 400-101 vce
NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:
NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
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Exam Code: 70-463 exam
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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70-463 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2016-10-31
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NO.1 You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3
Slowly Changing
Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Data Conversion component
B. an Expression task
C. a Merge component
D. an Execute SQL task that executes a MERGE statement on the database
Answer: C 100-105 vce
NO.2 You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. This model is used to store a
master list of products.
An attribute must be added to the Product entity to define the sales manager responsible for each
product.
You need to create an attribute in the Product entity that prevents users from entering invalid sales
manager values.
Which type of attribute should you create?
A. Explicit
B. User-defined
C. Derived
D. Recursive
E. Domain-based
F. Parent
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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157
Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-243 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 10 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health. You verify the logs on several clients. You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points. You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health. Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following day’s interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped. 070-243 exam Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 11 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site. You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites. What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest. You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script. You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest.What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery. 70-243 dumps Correct Answer: ABCE QUESTION 13 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site. You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings. What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14 Your network contains a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. All client computers are configured as WSUS clients. All of the client computers have the Windows Firewall enabled. Windows Firewall is configured to block Fie and Printer Sharing.
Users are not configured as local Administrators on their client computers. You deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. You need to identify which methods you can use to deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the
client computers. Which client installation methods should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A logon script installation
B. A manual client installation
C. A software update-based client installation
D. A Client Push Installation
E. An Active Directory Group Policy-based installation 070-243 pdf Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 15 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain.
The functional level of the domain is Server 2003.
The domain contains the following servers:
Ten servers that run Windows Server 2003
Twenty servers that run Windows Server 2008
One server that has Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 installed One server that has System Center 2012 Configuration Manager installed
Users have mobile devices that run Windows Mobile 6.5 and Windows Phone.
You need to ensure that you can manage the settings of the mobile devices and perform remote device wipes by using Configuration Manager.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010. Configure an Exchange connector.
B. Change the functional level of the domain to windows 2008. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010.
C. Upgrade all Windows 2003 domain controllers to Windows 2008.
D. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows 2008 R2. Configure an Exchange connector. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager. Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings 070-243 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers. All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed. App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder. All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc. You configure the Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension. After six months, you discover that some of the client computers fail to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files. You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18 Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable the Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data. The client computers report hardware inventory data. You confirm that the Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers. You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue. Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log 070-243 exam Correct Answer: ACD
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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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NO.1 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table: One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fails at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Perform a page restore.
E. Restore the latest full backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Answer: F
Explanation: 300-207 dumps
To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.
NO.2 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the VARBINARY data type.
B. Use the CAST function.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use the DATETIME data type.
E. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
F. Use a user-defined table type.
G. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
H. Use an appropriate collation.
I. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
J. Use the DATE data type.
Answer: C
NO.3 You have recently removed a SQL 2012 Database Engine instance from a computer running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system. Prior to the removal of the instance, you had configured
affinity so that the default instance used CPU 0 and 1 and the second instance used CPU 2 and 3. You want to ensure that the default instance can use all processors available to the host.
Which of the following commands would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = AUTO
B. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,4
C. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 0,1
D. ALTER SERVER CONFIGURATION SET PROCESS AFFINITY CPU = 2,3
Answer: A
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QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC5. DC5 has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall Active Directory from DC5 manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-ADComputercmdlet
B. The ntdsutil.exe command
C. The dsamain.exe command
D. The Remove-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon service creates a log file that contains all the locator resource records and places the log file in
the following location:
References:
QUESTION 98
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. New-VirtualDisk
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NOT A Share and Storage will only let you create a VHD on a storage pool NOT B Server Manager, can’t
find where to create this. NOT C Is this powershell ? the command should be NEW-VHD
D Computer management is the only valid yet non available answer. I’d be left with C, hoping they’d have
the good powershell command.
Note:
From @L_Ranger, Computer Management is not an option anymore.
Back to New-VirtualDisk
Old explanation : D (Computer management)
Explanation:
For Server 2012:
With the Server Manager snap-in, you can create and attach a .VHD file directly. Figure A shows the drop-down box
where a.VHD file can be created and attached. Figure A
QUESTION 99
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are part of a workgroup.
On Server1 and Server2, you create a local user account named Admin1. You add the account to the local
Administrators group. On both servers, Admin1 has the same password.
You log on to Server1 as Admin1. You open Computer Management and you connect to Server2.
When you attempt to create a scheduled task, view the event logs, and manage the shared folders, you
receive Access Denied messages.
You need to ensure that you can administer Server2 remotely from Server1 by using Computer
Management. What should you configure on Server2?
A. From Local Users and Groups, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
B. From Server Manager, modify the Remote Management setting.
C. From Windows Firewall, modify the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) firewall rule.
D. From Registry Editor, configure the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicyresgistry value
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Server2, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Server2 to the contoso.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 by using the Computer Management console on Server1.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Run sconfig.exe and configure remote management.
B. Run sconfig.exe and configure Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install Windows Management Framework.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Windows Server 2012, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.
References:
QUESTION 101
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 5erver2 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1) and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You need to manage DHCP on Server2 by using the DHCP console on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. From the Microsoft Management Console on Server1, add a snap-in.
B. From Server Manager on Server2, enable Windows Remote Management.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server2, run Enable-PSRemoting.
D. From Server Manager on Server1, install a feature.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.
References: Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter
7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335
QUESTION 103
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and corp.contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are configured as global catalog servers.
The corp.contoso.com domain contains a domain controller named DC1.
You need to disable the global catalog on DC1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
B. From Active Directory Administrative Center, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the properties of the corp.contoso.com domain.
D. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings of the DC1 server object.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When you navigate your way to the Active Directory Sites and Services\Sites\SiteName\Servers then in the details pane, right-click NTDS Settings of the selected server object, and then click Properties. There will you get access to the Global Catalog check box to add the global catalog, or clear the check box to remove the global catalog.
References:
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20489B: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions (five days)
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In this episode of Prep tips from certification experts, James Seymour, Certification Planner, and Aaron Steele, Microsoft Consulting Services, discuss the relevancy of the skills being measured on Exam 489.
Self-paced training
Developing SharePoint Server Advanced Solutions Jump Start
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-489 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-32)
QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers. Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site. What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.Document Management. DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.Document Management.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development. Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication 070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures. Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name. Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files. What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service. What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
070-489 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-489 exam Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication for the external content type in the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally. The solution must use the SQL Server user named sultry to connect to the database.
QUESTION 11
You need to add code at line AJ05 to complete the implementation of the app. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place: 070-489 dumps Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
You need to create an external content type to support the data model. In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally
QUESTION 13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
070-489 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 14. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C
QUESTION 15. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
070-489 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session D.
Transport
Answer: A
QUESTION 17. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
070-489 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 18. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B
QUESTION 19. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D.LLC header 70-489 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 21. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
070-489 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 22. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B
QUESTION 23. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
070-489 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B.Transport
C.Network
D.Data Link
Answer: B
QUESTION 25. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is .
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
070-489 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C.A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 27. When inspecting frames from a capture, start with the Decode window.
A. Hex
B. Objects tab
C. Detail
D. Summary 70-489 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 28. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A
QUESTION 29. If you are baselining the time it takes to download a 2 MB file, which of the following display options would help you determine the total download time?.
A. Relative time
B. Status column
C. Delta time
D. Absolute time
070-489 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 30. The Decode Summary window will
A. Display only Application layer protocols
B. Provide an overview of the captured frames
C. Only display legal size frames
D. Display runt or legal size frames but not oversize frames
Answer: B
QUESTION 31. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
070-489 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 32. The most common VLAN grouping technique is .
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router. B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router. C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2. D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames. E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets. F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address. Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 2 Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses in the same network? A. ICMP B. STP C. VTP D. HSRP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP address. Which two addresses are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate with other devices in the network? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.10.32 B. 192.168.10.38 C. 192.168.10.46 D. 192.168.10.47 E. 192.168.10.49 F. 192.168.10.51 Correct Answer: BC The IP address of host B must be in the range of 192.168.10.32/28 subnet, which ranges from 192.168.10.32 to 192.168.10.47 (Increment: 16), except the IP addresses of 192.168.10.32, 192.168.10.46 (which are the network and broadcast addresses of the subnet), 192.168.10.33, 192.168.10.34 (which have been assigned to the interface\\’s router and the switch). Therefore, there are only two IP addresses of 192.168.10.38 and 192.168.10.46.
QUESTION 4 Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask? A. routing protocol code B. prefix C. metric D. network mask Correct Answer: D IP Routing Table Entry Types An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented: Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class-based, subnet, or supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route. Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID. Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop. Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet. Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the network ID. Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes: Directly Attached Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or contain the IP address of the interface on that network. Remote Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network. Host Routes. A route to a specific IP address. Host routes allow routing to occur on a per- IP address basis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255. Default Route. The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.
QUESTION 5 Which condition is most important to support the use of syslog messages for troubleshooting? A. Messages are logged to a UNIX-based server. B. The router has a large internal buffer space. C. NTP is in use to ensure accurate timestamps. D. Messages are logged to a Cisco UCS Server. Correct Answer: C
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(21-38)
QUESTION 21 Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 exam Correct Answer:
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit.
After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference: The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has
QUESTION 23 What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, us
QUESTION 24 What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.
QUESTION 25 What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path
QUESTION 26 Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.
QUESTION 27 Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 If management expects 100 percent compliance with a procedure, which of the following sampling approaches would be most appropriate?
A. Attributes sampling.
B. Discovery sampling.
C. Targeted sampling.
D. Variables sampling. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 An internal auditor is discussing an audit problem with an engagement client. While listening to the client, the internal auditor should:
A. Prepare a response to the client.
B. Take mental notes on the speaker’s nonverbal communication, as it is more important than what is being said.
C. Make sure that all details, as well as the main ideas of the client, are remembered.
D. Integrate the incoming information from the client with information that is already known.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 An auditor is using an internal control questionnaire as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following is the best reason for the auditor to interview management regarding the questionnaire responses?
A. Interviews provide the opportunity to insert questions to probe promising areas.
B. Interviews are the most efficient way to upgrade the information to the level of objective evidence.
C. Interviewing is the least costly audit technique when a large amount of information is involved.
D. Interviewing is the only audit procedure which does not require confirmation of the information that is obtained. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Many questionnaires are made up of a series of different questions that use the same response categories (for example: strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree). Some designs will have different groups of respondents answer alternate versions of the questionnaire that present the questions in different orders and reverse the orientation of the endpoints of the scale (for example: agree on the right and disagree on the left). The purpose of such questionnaire variations is to:
A. Eliminate intentional misrepresentations. B. Reduce the effects of pattern response tendencies.
C. Test whether respondents are reading the questionnaire.
D. Make it possible to get information about more than one population parameter using the same questions. 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 An auditor used a questionnaire during an interview to gather information about the nature of credit sales processing. The questionnaire did not cover some pertinent information offered by the person being interviewed, and the auditor did not document the potential problems for further investigation. The primary deficiency with the above process is that:
A. The auditor failed to consider the importance of the information offered.
B. A questionnaire was used in a situation where a structured interview should have been used.
C. Using a questionnaire precludes the auditor from documenting other information.
D. The engagement program was incomplete. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 The use of standard operating procedure questionnaires in audit fieldwork can be beneficial because.
A. These questionnaires can both identify discrepancies and educate clients.
B. Standard operating procedures are essential to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations.
C. These questionnaires are more comprehensive than are other types of techniques for gathering data during fieldwork.
D. These questionnaires do not normally require prior clearance with management of the audited area.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Checklists used to assess audit risk have been criticized for all of the following reasons except:
A. Providing a false sense of security that all relevant factors are addressed.
B. Inappropriately implying equal weight to each item on the checklist.
C. Decreasing the uniformity of data acquisition.
D. Being incapable of translating the experience or sound reasoning intended to be captured by each item
on the checklist. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 A limitation of using ratio analysis in an audit engagement is that it:
A. Often uses financial information provided by management which has not been reviewed for reliability and validity.
B. Is an expensive method of testing.
C. Requires computer software in order to develop meaningful interpretations of data.
D. Is useful only when comparisons can be made across other industries.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Ben is the project manager of the NHF Project for his organization. Some delays early in the project have caused the project schedule to slip by nearly 15 percent. Management would like Ben to find a method to recoup the schedule slippage and to get the project back on track. Management is risk- adverse with this project. Which of the following methods should Ben avoid to recoup the project time?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Adding lead time Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Of all the choices, Ben should avoid fast tracking, as it allows complete phases of the project to overlap, and this increases project risks. Management wants to avoid risks, so fast tracking would not be helpful. Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope.
Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing adds people and costs but is relatively safe in regard to risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Critical chain is not a schedule compression technique and would notnecessarily help the project get back on schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. Lead time, similar to fast tracking, can increase project risks; however, fast tracking is more risky than lead time. Lead time allows individual activities to overlap, while fast tracking allows entire project phases to overlap.
QUESTION 37 Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to create a report on her project’s performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?
A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index
B. Scope baseline
C. Performance measurement baseline
D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report. Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the scope, whereas
performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation. Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule performance. Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.
QUESTION 38 Which of the following documents captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and a timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer?
A. Project charter
B. Scope of statement
C. SOW
D. WBS 100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document. Answer option B is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project. Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.
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“Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)”, also known as 100-105 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps exam questions answers are updated (332 Q&As) are verified by experts. These skills allow you to simplify and standardize the most complex daily activities running your team increase your credibility and value within the organization. The associated certifications of 100-105 dumps is CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless. Cisco Certified Network Associative Routing & Switching certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps validates your ability to Compare and contrast, OSI and TCP/IP models, Compare and contrast IPv4 address types and Compare and contrast OSI and TCP/IP models.
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Deploy and configure infrastructure (40-45%)
Implement workloads and security (25-30%)
Create and deploy apps (5-10%)
Implement authentication and secure data (5-10%)
Develop for the cloud and for Azure storage (15-20%)
A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-303
You may also be interested in other Microsoft exams.
Latest Microsoft AZ-300 Practice Test Online
QUESTION 1 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You need to deploy an Azure load balancer named ib1016 to your Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements: Support the load balancing of IP traffic from the Internet to Azure virtual machines connected to VNET1016\subnet0. Provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99,99 percent availability for the Azure virtual machines. Minimize Azure-related costs. What should you do from the Azure portal? To complete this task, you do NOT need to wait for the deployment to complete. Once the deployment starts in Azure, you can move to the next task. Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure networking infrastructure. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Once the VNets are peered, all resources on one VNet can communicate with resources on the other peered VNets. You plan to enable peering between Paris-VNet and AllOffices-VNet. Therefore VMs on Subnet1, which is on ParisVNet and VMs on Subnet3, which is on AllOffices-VNet will be able to connect to each other. All Azure resources connected to a VNet have outbound connectivity to the Internet by default. Therefore VMs on ClientSubnet, which is on ClientResources-VNet will have access to the Internet; and VMs on Subnet3 and Subnet4, which are on AllOffices-VNet will have access to the Internet. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/networking/networking-overview#internet-connectivity
QUESTION 3 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contosodoud.onmicrosoft.com. Your company has a public DNS zone for contoso.com. You add contoso.com as a custom domain name to Azure AD You need to ensure that Azure can verify the domain name. Which type of DNS record should you create? A. PTR B. TXT C. NSEC3 D. DNSKEY Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps. You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent within seven days. Solution: Backup data to local disks and use the Azure Import/Export service to send backups to Azure Blob Storage. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.
In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though. Box 2: No Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network. Box 3: Yes VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone. By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You have Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16 and contains the subnets in the following table.
Subnet1 contains a virtual appliance named VM1 that operates as a router. You create a routing table named RT1. You need to route all inbound traffic to VNet1 through VM1. How should you configure RT1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You are developing a web app that uses a REST interface to connect to Azure Storage with HTTPS. This app uploads and streams video content that can be accessed from anywhere in the world. You have different storage requirements for each part of the app. A hierarchical namespace must be created. Which storage services should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate services to the correct actions. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You plan to host several secured websites on Web01. You need to allow HTTPS over TCP port 443 to Web01 and to prevent HTTP over TCP port 80 to Web01. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer: See below. You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic from, several types of Azure resources. A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic from, several types of Azure resources. A2. Select Create.
Step A: Create a network security group A1. Search for and select the resource group for the VM, choose Add, then search for and select Network security group. The Create network security group window opens. A3. Create a network security group Enter a name for your network security group. Select or create a resource group, then select a location. A4. Select Create to create the network security group. Step B: Create an inbound security rule to allows HTTPS over TCP port 443 B1. Select your new network security group. B2. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add. B3. Add inbound rule B4. Select Advanced. From the drop-down menu, select HTTPS. You can also verify by clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 443. B5. Select Add to create the rule. Repeat step B2-B5 to deny TCP port 80 B6. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add. B7. Add inbound rule B8. Select Advanced. Clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 80. B9. Select Deny. Step C: Associate your network security group with a subnet Your final step is to associate your network security group with a subnet or a specific network interface. C1. In the Search resources, services, and docs box at the top of the portal, begin typing Web01. When the Web01 VM appears in the search results, select it. C2. Under SETTINGS, select Networking. Select Configure the application security groups, select the Security Group you created in Step A, and then select Save, as shown in the following picture:
QUESTION 9 You need to meet the connection requirements for the New York office. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Create a virtual network gateway and a local network gateway. Azure VPN gateway. The VPN gateway service enables you to connect the VNet to the on-premises network through a VPN appliance. For more information, see Connect an on-premises network to a Microsoft Azure virtual network. The VPN gateway includes the following elements: Virtual network gateway. A resource that provides a virtual VPN appliance for the VNet. It is responsible for routing traffic from the on-premises network to the VNet. Local network gateway. An abstraction of the on-premises VPN appliance. Network traffic from the cloud application to the on-premises network is routed through this gateway. Connection. The connection has properties that specify the connection type (IPSec) and the key shared with the onpremises VPN appliance to encrypt traffic. Gateway subnet. The virtual network gateway is held in its own subnet, which is subject to various requirements,described in the Recommendations section below. Box 2: Configure a site-to-site VPN connection On premises create a site-to-site connection for the virtual network gateway and the local network gateway.
Scenario: Connect the New York office to VNet1 over the Internet by using an encrypted connection. Incorrect Answers: Azure ExpressRoute: Established between your network and Azure, through an ExpressRoute partner. This connection is private. Traffic does not go over the internet. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/vpn
QUESTION 10 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You plan to create 100 Azure virtual machines on each of the following three virtual networks: -VNET1005a -VNET1005b -VNET1005c All the network traffic between the three virtual networks will be routed through VNET1005a. You need to create the virtual networks, and then to ensure that all the Azure virtual machines can connect to other virtual machines by using their private IP address. The solutions must NOT require any virtual gateways and must minimize the number of peerings. What should you do from the Azure portal before you configuring IP routing? Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits. How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct locations. Each Configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Azure compute services, namely virtual machines (IaaS) and cloud services (PaaS), that are deployed within a virtual network can be connected through the private peering domain. The private peering domain is considered to be a trusted extension of your core network into Microsoft Azure. Services such as Azure Storage, SQL databases, and Websites are offered on public IP addresses. You can privately connect to services hosted on public IP addresses, including VIPs of your cloud services, through the public peering routing domain. You can connect the public peering domain to your DMZ and connect to all Azure services on their public IP addresses from your WAN without having to connect through the internet. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-circuit-peerings
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps. You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent within seven days. Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share. Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Upload a configuration script. B. Create an automation account. C. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal. D. Create an Azure policy. E. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template. Correct Answer: CE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template
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Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals – importance
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals certification is necessary to get all the fundamental knowledge of Dynamics 365. If you have the certification of Dynamics 365 Fundamentals then your way of earning the further certifications at the associate and expert level of Dynamics 365 will become much easier. Dynamics 365 Fundamentals clears your elementary concepts of Dynamics 365.
Microsoft MB-900 exam questions，latest and accurate practice test
QUESTION 1 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct. The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing cases and knowledge articles. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change needed B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP You need to use the appropriate applications to meet requirements. Which applications should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate applications to the correct requirements. Each application may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You operate a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement environment. You need to determine the security types used to secure different resources. Which security type is used for each capability? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP Match each application to its Dynamics 365 licensing plan. To answer, drag the appropriate licensing plan from the column on left to its application on the right. Each licensing plan may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 You need to identify the benefits of Microsoft Azure cloud-based installations. What are two benefits? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. disaster recovery planning B. ability to easily scale for increased growth C. business continuity D. ability to adhere to static cost requirements Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 A company is preparing to implement a cloud-based environment. You need to inform management about the different types of cloud. Which three service components are available for infrastructure as a service (IaaS)? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. network security B. operating systems C. data center D. servers and storage E. hosted applications Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 7 You are a system administrator integrating Microsoft SharePoint on-premises and Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement in the cloud. Which technology should you use for this type of integration? A. private cloud B. software as a service (SaaS) C. public cloud D. hybrid cloud E. infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You need to choose the appropriate type of Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement solution for each scenario. Which solution types should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct scenarios. Each solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform. Which three Microsoft Azure services are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Azure Active Directory B. Microsoft PowerApps C. Azure Machine Learning D. Microsoft Flow E. Microsoft Power BI Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 10 You run Dynamics 365 and line-of-business applications on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. Due to compliance regulations, Dynamic 365 Finance and Operations data must remain on-premises. You migrate all managed solutions and Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement data to Dynamics 365 in the cloud. You need to determine which cloud service deployment model is being used. Which type of cloud service model is being used? A. Microsoft Azure Virtual Machine deployment B. platform as a service (PaaS) C. hybrid deployment D. software as a service (SaaS) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 You are determining whether to deploy Dynamics 365 for Retail or Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to identify the capabilities of each application. Which capabilities does each application support? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Match each response time to its level for Dynamics 365. To answer, drag the appropriate level from the column on the lest to its response time on the right. Each level may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You operate a Dynamics 365 online environment. You need to determine the appropriate release type for different audiences and supportability. Which release types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Refer to the following resources to pass the MB-900 exam:
In addition to the MB-900 exam questions, you should also refer to the following resources to pass the MB-900 exam:
Visit the official exam website of MB-900.
Ask a Microsoft instructor-led learning course.
Avail the facility of Microsoft Learning.
Participate in a community discussion about Dynamics 365 Basic Certification.
Video learning
Visit the official exam website: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-900
Ask a Microsoft instructor-led learning course: https://query.prod.cms.rt.microsoft.com/cms/api/am/binary/RWtQJJ
Avail the facility of Microsoft Learning: https://www.learningtree.co.uk/courses/8543/dynamics-365-fundamentals-mb-900/
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