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Latest effective Cisco 700-505 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and

applications in real time?

A. Cisco Unity

B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module

C. Borderless Networks

D. WebEx meetings

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.webex.com/how-to/

QUESTION 2

Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on

demand? (Choose two.)

A. 3900 Series

B. 2900 Series

C. 2800 Series

D. 800 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps10598/data_sheet_c78-553913.html

QUESTION 3

Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions?

(Choose three.)

A. Guarantee reliability.

B. Improve workforce productivity.

C. Hire more staff.

D. Increase cash flow.

E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.

F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.

Correct Answer: BEF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 4

Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.

Which best practice can close the sale?

A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial

B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.

C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.

D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating

management.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 5

Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 3048

B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers

C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

E. Cisco Nexus 5000

F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/ps10265/ps12629/white_paper_c11-715347.html (Second

para)

QUESTION 6

Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)

A. Document, application, and desktop sharing

B. Available in 226 languages

C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings

D. Consistent, cross-platform experience

E. Third-party voice included

F. Per-user attention status indicator

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps10412/index.html

QUESTION 7

Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?

A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.

B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.

C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the

LAN or across the WAN.

D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/products/architecture/

QUESTION 8

Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery

B. 50 percent less time in application deployment

C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs

D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/GR/connect2013/pdfs/024_cisco_eugenioszervoudis.pdf (slide 10)

QUESTION 9

Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless

Network? (Choose two.)

A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.

B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases

C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve

D. All potential failures will be eliminated.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/education/BNArchitecture.pdf (page 10, third bullet)

QUESTION 10

Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)

A. validates business decisions

B. protects revenue streams

C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs

D. increases business resilience

E. enhances career paths

F. promotes independence

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 11

Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks?

(Choose two.)A. having networking experts on site

B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization

C. implementing data center or large campus deployments

D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff

E. moving applications to the cloud

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 12

Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and

promotions?

A. Web search

B. Cisco Partner Central web site

C. 1-877-GO-CISCO

D. Your local Cisco sales engineer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/index.html

QUESTION 13

Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)

A. drives growth and profitability

B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)

C. differentiates your business

D. provides access to promotions and incentives

E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification

F. partner program enrollment increases

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco Channel Partner Program provides many ways to differentiate your business and drive growth

and profitability for your company.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/pr11/index.html

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?

A. SMARTnet

B. Small Business Support Service

C. SmartCare

D. Collaborative Professional Services

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco?Smart Care Service proactively verifies that the network is secure, reliable, and functioning

optimally so that you can improve your employee productivity and customer responsiveness and get the

most from your technology investments.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/services/programs/smartcare/downloads/Cisco_Smart_Care_

Partner_AAG_1111.pdf

QUESTION 15

Which statement about TrustSec is true?

A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.

B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services

to make context-aware access control decisions.

C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video

applications.

D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns170/ns896/ns1051/at_a_glance_c45- 653057.pdf (page

1, see Cisco TrustSec Secures borderless networks, first para, first sentence)

QUESTION 16

Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series?

(Choose two.)

A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.

B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.

C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.

D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps6032/ps6094/ps6120/at_a_glance_c45- 701635.pdf

QUESTION 17

Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize

business? (Choose two.)

A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint

B. Cisco MX200

C. Cisco VCS

D. Cisco Profile 42

Correct Answer: BD

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/products/webextelepresence/products.html

QUESTION 18

A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.

Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)

A. 8900 Series

B. 9900 Series

C. 3900 Series

D. 5900 Series

E. 6900 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/voicesw/ps6788/ip_phones.html (Both are high performance solutions.

See the bulleted points underneath each solution)

QUESTION 19

Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA

security.

B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.

C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.

D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure

mobility client.

E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.

F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/routers/ps10616/white_paper_c11_556985_ps10538

_Products_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 20

Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?

A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.

B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.

C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.

D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns394/ns348/ns1070/aag_c22-594304.pdf

QUESTION 21

Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server

B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch

D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series

F. Cisco Nexus 5000

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns517/ns224/exps.pdf (page 2, the components,

second and third bullet)

QUESTION 22

Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical

details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?

A. Cisco Commerce Workspace

B. Competitive Portal

C. Quick Product Reference Guide

D. Cisco Discovery Service

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 23

Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose

three.)

A. RSTP8021w

B. Universal PoE

C. medianet

D. Flexible NetFlow

E. Multiprotocol Label Switching

F. Gigabit Ethernet

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 24

Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? (Choose four.)

A. eliminate redundancy

B. guarantee business outcomes

C. increase ROID. reduce independence

E. provide reliability

F. slow staff growth

G. lower costs

H. boost productivity

Correct Answer: CEGH

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 25

In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)

A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility

B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff

C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools

D. by providing a complex borderless solution

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 26

Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or

prospective customers? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Meraki roadshow

B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE

C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program

D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager

E. Free product trials

F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

QUESTION 27

Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)

A. IP telephones

B. Cisco Telepresence

C. Mobile device management

D. Switches

E. Security appliances

F. Servers

G. Storage

H. Wireless access points

Correct Answer: CDEH

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/ (see products)

QUESTION 28

Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?

A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook

B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.

C. It provides business hours global coverage

D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Source collection, analysis, and delivery of Security Intelligence content that includes services,

publications, VoDs, and podcasts are among the key resources offered through SIO. SIO provides insight

into threat trends and future outlook to protect the network through security best practices guidance and

mitigation techniques.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/services/news/ts_newsletter/tool/archives/201004.html

QUESTION 29

Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution?

(Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree

B. Smart Install

C. AutoSmartPorts

D. Smart CallHome

E. Solar-powered

F. Uninterruptable power

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps4324/at_a_glance_c45- 686803.pdf

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
What does the Warehouse Proxy agent do?
A. It provides dashboard visualization and reporting services for the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
B. It receives data collected by monitoring agents and moves it to the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
C. It analyzes and enriches the data that is collected by its monitoring agents and provides reports about the performance and capacity of systems.
D. It provides the ability to customize the length of time to save data and how often to aggregate granular data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What can an IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator do to help users view events when the Situation Event Console is constantly receiving too many alerts per hour?
A. Disable the Situation Event Console and clear alerts
B. Move the Situation Event Console to a separate server
C. Use IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus and send alerts to that console if entitled
D. The Situation Event Console is multi-threaded so add more processes to the process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which type of files are required for presenting workspaces, online help, and expert advice for the agent in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. audit and policy files
B. catalog and attribute files
C. help and presentation files
D. application configuration files
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of multiple Warehouse Proxy agents?
A. To get more accurate data from the Tivoli Data Warehouse
B. So that Summarization and Pruning can complete in its window
C. To ensure that Tivoli Monitoring agent data is written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. To allow multiple users to query the Tivoli Data Warehouse from the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
The Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server database contains which data?
A. Query, User, and Situation
B. Query, User, and Managed Systems
C. Query, User, and Workspace Definition
D. User, Situation, and Workspace Definition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about correlated situations?
A. They can only be used if referenced in a policy.
B. They only run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
C. They only run at Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers.
D. They run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server and Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
How are logically related attributes stored?
A. As Attribute Events
B. As Attribute Groups
C. As Attribute Policies
D. As Attribute Containers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which step is necessary to create a new query for data retrieval?
A. Click the Query Editor Icon on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) tool bar.
B. Click the Modify Query icon on the TEP tool bar.
C. Click Administration Mode and then select the Query Editor from the list.
D. Click Administration Mode, click List, and then select Query Editor from the list.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
How can a predefined workspace be restored to the original workspace?
A. Run tacmd restore workspace
B. File > Restore Original Workspace
C. Restart the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
D. It cannot be restored to the original workspace.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true regarding an export of monitoring data to a file after running a query?
A. No data can be excluded from the export.
B. Only rows can be excluded from the export.
C. Only columns can be excluded from the export.
D. Rows and columns can be excluded from the export.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
What is supplied with each monitoring agent?
A. Attribute Groups
B. Tivoli Data Warehouse reports
C. Universal Agent Data Providers
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus rules
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Where can a user defined query be used for data retrieval?
A. View only
B. Workspace only
C. View and Workspace only
D. View, Workspace, and Embedded Situations
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What is range partitioning?
A. An historical data collection feature that allows data to be filtered.
B. A feature used by the Agentless technology that allows better control of agent deployment.
C. A database data organization feature that can reduce feedback time for Summarization and Pruning agent performance.
D. A database data organization feature that can significantly improve pruning and query performance in large Tivoli Data Warehouse databases.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What should be used to show trends overtime among related attributes?
A. Bar chart
B. Plot chart
C. Topology view
D. Linear gauge chart
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
What are two ways to control all of the data streams that are available to a user in IBM Tivoli Monitoring? (Choose two.)A. Policies
B. Workflows
C. Workspaces
D. Pruning data
E. Logical views
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are three types of links at the Tivoli Enterprise Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Pure
B. Static
C. Relative
D. Absolute
E. Dynamic
F. Sampled
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation

QUESTION 17
What influences the data collection within the IBM Tivoli Monitoring environment?
A. Number of agents
B. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Portal Servers
C. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers
D. Number of Summarization and Pruning agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which permission must be set for a user to publish a workspace?
A. Administration Mode Eligible and Author Mode Eligible
B. Author Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
C. Workspace Administration Mode and Workspace Author Mode
D. Administration Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
What must be configured and distributed to the managed systems that data is being queried from, to enable the Specify Time Span for Query?
A. Historical Situation
B. Event Integration Facility
C. Historical Data Collection
D. The Until feature on a situation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Log in access to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client is controlled by user accounts that are defined where?
A. Dashboard Hub Services
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Authorization Policy Server
D. Operating System User Registry
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which two tasks must a user perform to create custom workspaces for a group? (Choose two.)
A. Create the custom workspaces and then save them when exiting.
B. Change the group settings on existing workspaces and rename them.
C. Log in as the group account and create the views in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS) for the team.
D. Custom workspaces can only be created in the TEPS if Dashboard Application Services Hub is installed.
E. Check that there is a group assigned in the TEPS for the team and limit the use of the workspaces to that group.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 22
When defining a user that will be responsible to ensure the proper backups are taken, which Tivoli Enterprise Portal Sewer user group would be assigned to the
user?
A. Operations
B. Management
C. Administrators
D. Support Teams
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
What is a characteristic of a pure event?
A. It does not close automatically by default.
B. It has a unique randomized control number.
C. It links with enterprise workspace automatically.
D. It returns multiple rows for historical data collection.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
What are two functions defined within a policy? (Choose two.)
A. Have the policy start or stop policies
B. Have the policy start or stop situations
C. Have the policy write the attributes to the agent log
D. Have the policy automatically acknowledge the situation that triggered the event
E. Have the attribute record that triggered the policy write a historical record of the specific data
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 25
With a policy there are many features and functions available to create a workflow type process when a given situation becomes true. Which feature is available?
A. Start/Stop SNMP
B. Start/Stop a Policy
C. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent
D. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
How can you tell if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. The Navigator item will be grey.
B. The situation icon will appear red for all situations when true.
C. The situation icon will always appear beside the Navigator item.
D. The Navigator item will appear when the situation becomes true.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
What does the Krarlofl program do?
A. It converts short-term history files to delimited flat files.
B. It is used to dynamically change the tracing options for an agent.
C. It is used transfer a file from a remote managed system to a local destination.
D. It is used to generate the auto start scripts on UNIX and Linux based on the definitions in kcirunas.cfg.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
No data is being written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse (TDW), and all the Warehouse Prows’ agents are online with a normal status. What should be checked?
A. Verify the database is supported.
B. Verify the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server user ID is logged in to the TDW.
C. Verify the Summarization and Pruning agent is running according to its schedule.
D. Verify the database User ID the Warehouse Prows’ agent is using has sufficient database privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNi bus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
What is monitored by the Summarization and Pruning agent (SPA)?
A. The run time and completion of the SPA
B. The connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. The size of the tables being summarized and pruned
D. Availability of space on the disk where the Tivoli Data Warehouse is located
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which type of diagram is used to visualize historical data?
A. Pie Chart
B. Plot Chart
C. Table View
D. Graphic View
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which group is indicated by a in front of some groups in the Object Group editor?
A. Default
B. Unused
C. Ali Groups
D. Managed System
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
What is a workspace as it relates to IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A screen in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) to display data.
B. A policy in the TEP for displaying logical views.
C. A screen that displays only temporary historical data.
D. A policy in the TEP for displaying information for physical views.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
What must occur to publish a workspace?
A. Have Workspace Author Mode and click the Save icon
B. Click the Create New Workspace icon, create the Workspace, and then click the Save icon
C. Have Workspace Administration, click the Properties icon, and then click the Apply Button
D. Click the Save icon and then contact an administrator and ask them to publish the new workspace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
When setting a time span to display, what would cause Null to be displayed as the value of a table cell or chart point?
A. The IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) license key is invalid.
B. The ITM encryption key is invalid.
C. The Tivoli Data Warehouse agent is not running.
D. No data was stored in the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
You are running Hadoop cluster with all monitoring facilities properly configured.
Which scenario will go undeselected?
A. HDFS is almost full
B. The NameNode goes down
C. A DataNode is disconnected from the cluster
D. Map or reduce tasks that are stuck in an infinite loop
E. MapReduce jobs are causing excessive memory swaps
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which scheduler would you deploy to ensure that your cluster allows short jobs to finish within a reasonable time without
starting long-running jobs?
A. Complexity Fair Scheduler (CFS)
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which is the default scheduler in YARN?
A. YARN doesn\’t configure a default scheduler, you must first assign an appropriate scheduler class in yarn-site.xml
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website. For example, you want to know which
pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a server farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. Which is the
most efficient process to gather these web server across logs into your Hadoop cluster analysis?
A. Sample the web server logs web servers and copy them into HDFS using curl B. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume
C. Channel these clickstreams into Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming
D. Import all user clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop using Sqoop
E. Write a MapReeeduce job with the web servers for mappers and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reducers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You suspect that your NameNode is incorrectly configured, and is swapping memory to disk. Which Linux commands
help you to identify whether swapping is occurring? (Select all that apply)
A. free
B. df
C. memcat
D. top
E. jps
F. vmstat
G. swapinfo
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 6
Which YARN daemon or service negotiations map and reduce Containers from the Scheduler, tracking their status and
monitoring progress?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. ApplicationManager
D. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of map output records. Your
child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve
maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0 D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as close to equals) the
number of map output records.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are planning a Hadoop cluster and considering implementing 10 Gigabit Ethernet as the network fabric. Which
workloads benefit the most from faster network fabric?
A. When your workload generates a large amount of output data, significantly larger than the amount of intermediate
data
B. When your workload consumes a large amount of input data, relative to the entire capacity if HDFS
C. When your workload consists of processor-intensive tasks
D. When your workload generates a large amount of intermediate data, on the order of the input data itself
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a cluster running with the fair Scheduler enabled. There are currently no jobs running on the cluster, and you
submit a job A, so that only job A is running on the cluster. A while later, you submit Job B. now Job A and Job B are
running on the cluster at the same time. How will the Fair Scheduler handle these two jobs? (Choose two)
A. When Job B gets submitted, it will get assigned tasks, while job A continues to run with fewer tasks.
B. When Job B gets submitted, Job A has to finish first, before job B can gets scheduled.
C. When Job A gets submitted, it doesn\’t consumes all the task slots.
D. When Job A gets submitted, it consumes all the task slots.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Cluster Summary:
45 files and directories, 12 blocks = 57 total. Heap size is 15.31 MB/193.38MB(7%)
pass4itsure question
Refer to the above screenshot.
You configure a Hadoop cluster with seven DataNodes and on of your monitoring UIs displays the details shown in the
exhibit.
What does the this tell you?
A. The DataNode JVM on one host is not active
B. Because your under-replicated blocks count matches the Live Nodes, one node is dead, and your DFS Used %
equals 0%, you can\’t be certain that your cluster has all the data you\’ve written it.
C. Your cluster has lost all HDFS data which had bocks stored on the dead DatNode
D. The HDFS cluster is in safe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary NameNode on host
mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last checkpoint value in fstime
file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the andquot;Last
Checkpointandquot; information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the andquot;Last
Checkpointandquot; information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are configuring a server running HDFS, MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN running Linux. How must youformat underlying file system of each DataNode?
A. They must be formatted as HDFS
B. They must be formatted as either ext3 or ext4
C. They may be formatted in any Linux file system
D. They must not be formatted – – HDFS will format the file system automatically
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You want to node to only swap Hadoop daemon data from RAM to disk when absolutely necessary. What should you
do?
A. Delete the /dev/vmswap file on the node
B. Delete the /etc/swap file on the node
C. Set the ram.swap parameter to 0 in core-site.xml
D. Set vm.swapfile file on the node
E. Delete the /swapfile file on the node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Your Hadoop cluster is configuring with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can you configure a worker
node to run a NodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still have a functional cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Map tasks only
D. Yes. The daemon will receive Reducer tasks only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Assume you have a file named foo.txt in your local directory. You issue the following three commands: Hadoop fs mkdir
input
Hadoop fs put foo.txt input/foo.txt
Hadoop fs put foo.txt input What happens when you issue the third command? A. The write succeeds, overwriting foo.txt in HDFS with no warning
B. The file is uploaded and stored as a plain file named input
C. You get a warning that foo.txt is being overwritten
D. You get an error message telling you that foo.txt already exists, and asking you if you would like to overwrite it.
E. You get a error message telling you that foo.txt already exists. The file is not written to HDFS
F. You get an error message telling you that input is not a directory
G. The write silently fails
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
You are working on a project where you need to chain together MapReduce, Pig jobs. You also need the ability to use
forks, decision points, and path joins. Which ecosystem project should you use to perform these actions?
A. Oozie
B. ZooKeeper
C. HBase
D. Sqoop
E. HUE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
During the execution of a MapReduce v2 (MRv2) job on YARN, where does the Mapper place the intermediate data of
each Map Task?
A. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the node running the Job\’s ApplicationMaster so that it is available to
YARN ShuffleService before the data is presented to the Reducer
B. The Mapper stores the intermediate data in HDFS on the node where the Map tasks ran in the HDFS /
usercache/andamp;(user)/apache/application_andamp;(appid) directory for the user who ran the job
C. The Mapper transfers the intermediate data immediately to the reducers as it is generated by the Map Task
D. YARN holds the intermediate data in the NodeManager\’s memory (a container) until it is transferred to the Reducer
E. The Mapper stores the intermediate data on the underlying filesystem of the local disk in the directories
yarn.nodemanager.locak-DIFS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
You have a Hadoop cluster HDFS, and a gateway machine external to the cluster from which clients submit jobs. What
do you need to do in order to run Impala on the cluster and submit jobs from the command line of the gatewaymachine?
A. Install the impalad daemon statestored daemon, and daemon on each machine in the cluster, and the impala shell on
your gateway machine
B. Install the impalad daemon, the statestored daemon, the catalogd daemon, and the impala shell on your gateway
machine
C. Install the impalad daemon and the impala shell on your gateway machine, and the statestored daemon and catalogd
daemon on one of the nodes in the cluster
D. Install the impalad daemon on each machine in the cluster, the statestored daemon and catalogd daemon on one
machine in the cluster, and the impala shell on your gateway machine
E. Install the impalad daemon, statestored daemon, and catalogd daemon on each machine in the cluster and on the
gateway node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. What is the result when you
execute: hadoop jar SampleJar MyClass on a client machine?
A. SampleJar.Jar is sent to the ApplicationMaster which allocates a container for SampleJar.Jar
B. Sample.jar is placed in a temporary directory in HDFS
C. SampleJar.jar is sent directly to the ResourceManager
D. SampleJar.jar is serialized into an XML file which is submitted to the ApplicatoionMaster
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which command does Hadoop offer to discover missing or corrupt HDFS data?
A. Hdfs fs du
B. Hdfs fsck
C. Dskchk D. The map-only checksum
E. Hadoop does not provide any tools to discover missing or corrupt data; there is not need because three replicas are
kept for each data block
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Assuming a cluster running HDFS, MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN with all settings at their default, what do you
need to do when adding a new slave node to cluster?
A. Nothing, other than ensuring that the DNS (or/etc/hosts files on all machines) contains any entry for the new node.
B. Restart the NameNode and ResourceManager daemons and resubmit any running jobs.
C. Add a new entry to /etc/nodes on the NameNode host.
D. Restart the NameNode of dfs.number.of.nodes in hdfs-site.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Your company stores user profile records in an OLTP databases. You want to join these records with web server logs
you have already ingested into the Hadoop file system. What is the best way to obtain and ingest these user records?
A. Ingest with Hadoop streaming
B. Ingest using Hive\’s IQAD DATA command
C. Ingest with sqoop import
D. Ingest with Pig\’s LOAD command
E. Ingest using the HDFS put command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which process instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2)
on YARN?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. TaskTracker
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
G. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You\’re upgrading a Hadoop cluster from HDFS and MapReduce version 1 (MRv1) to one running HDFS and
MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You want to
set and enforce version 1 (MRv1) to one running HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You want to set
and enforce a block size of 128MB for all
new files written to the cluster after upgrade.
What should you do?
A. You cannot enforce this, since client code can always override this value
B. Set dfs.block.size to 128M on all the worker nodes, on all client machines, and on the NameNode, and set the
parameter to final
C. Set dfs.block.size to 128 M on all the worker nodes and client machines, and set the parameter to final. You do not
need to set this value on the NameNode
D. Set dfs.block.size to 134217728 on all the worker nodes, on all client machines, and on the NameNode, and set the
parameter to final
E. Set dfs.block.size to 134217728 on all the worker nodes and client machines, and set the parameter to final. You do
not need to set this value on the NameNode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your cluster is running MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Your ResourceManager is configured to use the
FairScheduler. Now you want to configure your scheduler such that a new user on the cluster can submit jobs into their
own queue application submission. Which configuration should you set?
A. You can specify new queue name when user submits a job and new queue can be created dynamically if the
property yarn.scheduler.fair.allow-undecleared
pools = true
B. Yarn.scheduler.fair.user.fair-as-default-queue = false and yarn.scheduler.fair.allow- undecleared-pools = true
C. You can specify new queue name when user submits a job and new queue can be created dynamically if yarn
.schedule.fair.user-as-default-queue = false
D. You can specify new queue name per application in allocations.xml file and have new jobs automatically assigned to
the application queue
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A user comes to you, complaining that when she attempts to submit a Hadoop job, it fails. There is a Directory in HDFS
named /data/input. The Jar is named j.jar, and the driver class is named DriverClass.
She runs the command: Hadoop jar j.jar DriverClass /data/input/data/output
The error message returned includes the line: PriviligedActionException as:training (auth:SIMPLE)
cause:org.apache.hadoop.mapreduce.lib.input.invalidInputException: Input path does not exist: file:/data/input
What is the cause of the error?
A. The user is not authorized to run the job on the cluster
B. The output directory already exists
C. The name of the driver has been spelled incorrectly on the command line
D. The directory name is misspelled in HDFS
E. The Hadoop configuration files on the client do not point to the cluster
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two are features of Hadoop\’s rack topology? (Choose two)
A. Configuration of rack awareness is accomplished using a configuration file. You cannot use a rack topology script.
B. Hadoop gives preference to intra-rack data transfer in order to conserve bandwidth
C. Rack location is considered in the HDFS block placement policy
D. HDFS is rack aware but MapReduce daemon are not
E. Even for small clusters on a single rack, configuring rack awareness will improve performance
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Your cluster has the following characteristics: A rack aware topology is configured and on
Replication is set to 3
Cluster block size is set to 64MB
Which describes the file read process when a client application connects into the cluster and requests a 50MB file?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads all three copies. The first copy to complete
transfer to the client is the one the client reads as part of hadoop\’s speculative execution framework.
B. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads from the first location in the list it receives.
C. The client queries the NameNode for the locations of the block, and reads from a random location in the list it
receives to eliminate network I/O loads by balancing which nodes it retrieves data from any given time. D. The client queries the NameNode which retrieves the block from the nearest DataNode to the client then passes that
block back to the client.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
On a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN, a MapReduce job is given a directory of 10 plain text files as its
input directory. Each file is made up of 3 HDFS blocks. How many Mappers will run?
A. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the ResourceManager
B. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the developer
C. 30
D. 3
E. 10
F. We cannot say; the number of mappers is determined by the ApplicationMaster
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
In a switched network with Unicast
A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.
B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.
C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.
D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An installer is upgrading an installation with several analog PTZ cameras using Axis Q-line encoders. Which of the following options should be checked before proceeding?
A. That the SD card is supported
B. That H.264 compression is supported
C. That both D1 and 4CIF resolution are supported
D. That the PTZ driver is supported
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Media Control
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about multicast video streaming are true? (Choose three) A. Multicast can help to save bandwidth in a network
B. Multicast can typically not be used to provide video over internet
C. Multicast uses TCP as transport protocol
D. Multicast extends the viewer capacity of a camera or an encoder from 10-20 to an unlimited number
E. RTSP streams are always sent through multicast
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A convenience store needs a camera to cover the entrance. Identification is needed at 80 pixels per face. Given that the
scene is 2 m (6 ft 7 in) wide, which of these resolutions is the minimum one needed?
A. 640X480
B. 800 X 600
C. 1280 X 720
D. 1920 X 1080
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which network features are usually combined to prevent access to the surveillance network?
A. IEEE 802.3ad link aggregation and HTTPS encryption
B. IP subnets and VLANs
C. Router port forwarding and IP subnets
D. Router port forwarding and VLANs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When using IR illuminators, which wavelengths would not produce any visible glow?
A. 650 nm
B. 750 nm
C. 850 nm
D. 940 nm
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
AXIS Design Tool is used for
A. Estimating bandwidth and creating a bill of materials.
B. Determining camera coverage and creating a bill of materials.
C. Selecting the right cameras and choosing AXIS Camera Station licenses.
D. Plan network topology and determining camera coverage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A customer has strict requirements of 30 fps for recorded video. Which encoder choice would they select if they wanted three streams, per every one encoded channel, of D1 resolution video run at 30 fps in H.264?
A. AXISM7210
B. AXISP7210
C. AXISP7214
D. AXISQ7406
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If an installer wants to configure 20 cameras to show the same synchronized date and time in Live View, how can this be achieved?
A. Adapt the date and time from a client computer when using the camera configuration tool
B. Synchronize the date and time with a remote FTP server by downloading files from the server
C. Synchronize the date and time with a remote NTP server
D. Fetch the date and time from the installed root certificate
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How does the AXIS Design Tool allow users to estimate the effects of scene complexity and motion on bandwidth and storage usage?
A. AXIS Design Tool requires users to manually enter their own estimated bit rate for each camera
B. Users can view model scenario videos and select the scenario that best matches their scene
C. Users can upload recorded surveillance video to allow AXIS Design Tool to make estimates
D. AXIS Design Tool uses a statistical model based on selected camera model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The purpose of a router is to
A. Forward traffic within a local network.
B. Forward traffic between different networks.
C. Manage server connections to a local network.
D. Establish encrypted connections between networks over the internet.
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are common ways to protect video while using a wireless network? (Choose two)
A. VPN
B. WPA2
C. IEEE 802.1x
D. IEEE802.11N
E. HTTPS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Gatekeeper is a function that
A. Makes it possible for a PTZ camera to do a guard tour.
B. Enables two way audio for communication at a gate.
C. Uses video motion detection for detecting if a gate is open.
D. Uses video motion to zoom in on an object.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Focusing a camera improves the image, but it also
A. Has an effect on the frame rate
B. Increases the bandwidth
C. Changes the pixel resolution
D. Decreases the bandwidth
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is the appropriate usage for an Axis thermal camera?
A. Identifying people in complete darkness
B. Detecting motion only at nighttime
C. Measuring exact temperatures in daytime
D. Detecting activity in daylight and complete darkness
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
IP51 and IP52 means that the camera
A. Can be placed in or outdoors.
B. Is resistant to dust and dripping water.
C. Is vandal resistant.
D. Is designed for tough environments.
AX0-100 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Ghost image is when
A. The lens is using too high f-stop value.
B. The shutter time is too long.
C. The gain is too high.
D. The frame rate is too low.
AX0-100 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A Day andamp; Night camera automatically removes the IR-cut filter for low light operations. In that mode, the camera becomes sensitive to IR light. Which wavelength is the camera most sensitive to?
A. 850 nm
B. 950 nm
C. 1140 nm
D. 1350 nm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
The capability to view and record up to four different areas of the whole image of an AXIS P1346 is called
A. Multicast streaming.
B. Multi-view streaming.
C. Broadcast streaming.
D. Multi-link streaming.
AX0-100 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Increased noise levels in a scene will increase the
A. Light sensitivity.
B. Contrast level.
C. Bandwidth usage.
D. Brightness level.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
When choosing a camera for extreme low temperature environments, how would Arctic Temperature Control ensure camera longevity?
A. The product is always kept cold
B. The product can handle low ambient temperatures
C. The product is protected against extreme temperatures
D. The product performs a stepped start-up at low ambient temperature
AX0-100 dumps Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 20
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual-core processors and 32 GB of RAM.
You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory.
You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.
What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Memory weight
C. Dynamic Memory
D. NUMA topology
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Dynamic Memory is a new Hyper-V feature that helps you use physical memory more efficiently. With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V treats memory as a shared resource that can be reallocated automatically among running virtual machines. Dynamic Memory adjusts the amount of memory available to a virtual machine, based on changes in memory demand and values that you specify. Dynamic Memory is available for Hyper-V in Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
* Dynamic Memory helps you use memory resources more efficiently. Before this feature was introduced, changing the amount of memory available to a virtual machine could be done only when the virtual machine was turned off. With Dynamic Memory, Hyper-V can provide a virtual machine with more or less memory dynamically in response to changes in the amount ofmemory required by the workloads or Applications running in the virtual machine. As a result, Hyper-V can distribute memory more efficiently among the running virtual machines configured with Dynamic Memory. Depending on factors such as workload, this efficiency can make it possible to run more virtual machines at the same time on one physical computer.

QUESTION 21
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 has several snapshots.
You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
B. Right-click VM1, and then click Move. ..
C. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
D. PauseVM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
you will need to navigate to the Hyper-V Management snap-in from there access the Snapshot file Location tab where you can change the settings for the VM1 snapshot file
location. However, since there are already several snapshots in existence, you will need to delete them first because you will not be able to change the location of the snapshot file while there is an existing snapshot. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1.

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. On a server named Server2, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.You join Server2 to the contoso.com domain. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 by using the Computer Management console on Server1. What should you do on Server2?
A. Install Windows Management Framework.
B. Run sconfig.exe and configure Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Run sconfig.exe and configure remote management.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails. Maximize the amount of useable storage space. What should you create?
A. A mirrored space
B. A spanned volume
C. A parity space
D. A simple space
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Fault tolerant and better space ratio. The data on volumes created on this type of virtual disk, together with parity information that can be used to facilitate automatic reconstruction of data in the event of a physical disk failure, is striped across all physical disks in the pool. Parity virtual disks also provide resiliency to help protect you from data loss arising from the failure 368 Chapter 8 File services and storage of a physical disk in the pool, but they perform better with large sequential disk writes than with random I/O.

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 has a virtual switch named RDS Virtual. You replace all of the network adapters on Server1 with new network adapters that support single-root I/O visualization (SR-IOV). You need to enable SR-IOV for all of the virtual machines on Server1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On each virtual machine, modify the Advanced Features settings of the network adapter.
B. Modify the settings of the RDS Virtual virtual switch.
C. On each virtual machine, modify the BIOS settings.
D. Delete, and then recreate the RDS Virtual virtual switch.
E. On each virtual machine, modify the Hardware Acceleration settings of the network adapter.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The first step when allowing a virtual machine to have connectivity to a physical network is to create an external virtual switch using Virtual Switch Manager in Hyper-V Manager. The additional step that is necessary when using SR-IOV is to ensure the checkbox is checked when the virtual switch is being created. It is not possible to change a “non SR-IOV mode” external virtual switch into an “SR-IOV mode” switch. The choice must be made a switch creation time. Thus you should first delete the existing virtual switch and then recreate it.
E: Once a virtual switch has been created, the next step is to configure a virtual machine. SR- IOV in Windows Server “8” is supported on x64 editions of Windows “8” as a guest operating system (as in Windows “8” Server, and Windows “8” client x64, but not x86 client).We have rearranged the settings for a virtual machine to introduce sub-nodes under a network adapter, one of which is the hardware acceleration node. At the bottom is a checkbox to enable SR-IOV.

QUESTION 25
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 contains a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can install Windows features on VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?
A. Hyper-V Administrators on Server1
B. Administrators on VM1
C. Server Operators on Server1
D. Power Users on VM1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The user has to be an administrator on VM1 to be able to install features.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.539

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules.
Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C.
You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?
A. Create a new rule.
B. Delete an existing rule.
C. Modify the action of the existing rules.
D. Add an exception to the existing rules.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The password policy for the domain is set to require a minimum password length of 10 characters. A user named User1 and a user named User2 work for the sales department. User1 is forced to create a domain password that has a minimum of 12 characters.User2 is forced to create a domain password that has a minimum of eight characters. You need to identify what forces the two users to have different password lengths. Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Management
B. Credential Manager
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Security Configuration Wizard (SCW)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In Windows Server 2008, you can use fine-grained password policies to specify multiple password policies and apply different password restrictions and account lockout policies to different sets of users within a single domain. For example, to increase the security of privileged accounts, you can apply stricter settings to the privileged accounts and then apply less strict settings to the accounts of other users. Or in some cases, you may want to apply a special password policy for accounts whose passwords are synchronized with other data sources. This is found in the Active Directory Administrative Center. You can use Active Directory Administrative Center to perform the following Active Directory administrative tasks: Create new user accounts or manage existing user accounts Create new groups or manage existing groups Create new computer accounts or manage existing computer accounts Create new organizational units (OUs) and containers or manage existing OUs Connect to one or several domains or domain controllers in the same instance of Active Directory Administrative Center, and view or manage the directory information for those domains or domain controllers

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains user accounts and computer accounts.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the domain.GP1 contains Computer Configuration settings and User Configuration settings.
You need to prevent the User Configuration settings in GP1 from being applied to users. The solution must ensure that the Computer Configuration settings in GP1 are applied to all client computers. What should you configure?
A. The GPO Status
B. The Block Inheritance feature
C. The Group Policy loopback processing mode
D. The Enforced setting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Add, remove, and resize logical volumes

Diagnose and correct networking service problems where SELinux contexts are interfering with proper operation

7, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 Configuring a Network Installation Configuring Partitions, RAID, and LVM The CUPS Printing System Automating System Administration: cron and at Network Authentication Configuration: NIS and LDAP Filesystem Management and the Automounter User Account Management, The Basic User Environment, Setting Up and Managing Disk Quotas Creating and Maintaining Special Groups The Red Hat Package Manager, More RPM Commands New Kernels, the Easy Way Adding and Removing RPM Packages with yum and pirut, Managing Updates with Pup and the Red Hat Network (RHN) New Kernels, the Easy Way; Kernel Sources Configuring Partitions, 2 2 7 7 6

329, 443, 493, 557, 585, 613, 649, 691

RHCT Installation and Configuration Skills Perform network OS installation Implement a custom partitioning scheme Configure printing Configure the scheduling of tasks using cron and at Attach system to a network directory service, such as NIS or LDAP Configure autofs Add and manage users, groups, and quotas, and File Access Control Lists Configure filesystem permissions for collaboration Install and update packages using rpm Properly update the kernel package Configure the system to update/install packages from remote repositories using yum or pup Modify the system boot loader Implement software RAID at install-

81 96 341 354 313

* * * * *

4 6

200 273, 285, 290 301 222, 227 388 238, 234

* *

6 5

* *

8 5

* *

8 2, 8

388, 392 96, 410

* *

This document is created with trial version of CHM2PDF Pilot 2.15.72. time and runtime RAID, and LVM; Advanced
Partitioning: Software RAID Use /proc/sys and sysctl to modify and set kernel runtime parameters Use scripting to automate system maintenance tasks RHCE Installation and Configuration Skills For HTTP/HTTPS, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For SMB, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For NFS, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For FTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For Web proxy, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For SMTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For IMAP/IMAPS/POP3, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and userbased security For SSH, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security For DNS (caching name server, slave name server), install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and userbased security For NTP, install, configure SELinux support, configure to start on reboot for basic operation and host- and user-based security Configure hands-free installation using Kickstart Implement logical volumes at install-time Use iptables to implement packet filtering and/or NAT The Apache Web Server, Virtual Hosts, Apache Access Configuration Samba Services The Basics of the Kernel Automating System Administration: cron and at 9 8 7 444, 466, 456 516 377 329 * * *

Configuring a Network File System (NFS) Server, Client-side NFS The File Transfer Protocol and vsFTPd

494, 509

512

The Squid Web Cache Proxy

476

Electronic Mail (entire chapter)

585

Reception with Dovecot

589

The Secure Shell Package

620

Domain Name Service (entire chapter)

557

The Network Time Protocol (NTP)

634

Using Kickstart to Automate Installation Configuring Partitions, RAID, and LVM Firewalls and Packet Filtering using netfilter, Network Address Translation Pluggable Authentication Modules

5 2 15

244 96 697, 703

* * *

Use PAM to implement user-level restrictions

305

This document is created with trial version of CHM2PDF Pilot 2.15.72.

Chapter 1: RHCE Prerequisites
Overview
The Red Hat exams are an advanced challenge. As both the RHCE and RHCT courses specify a number of prerequisite skills, this book assumes that you know some basics about Linux. This chapter covers the prerequisite topics for Red Hat’s RH300 course in a minimum of detail, with references to other books and sources for more information. It also covers the related prerequisites as defined in the Red Hat Exam Prep guide. Unlike those in other chapters and other books in this series, the questions in this chapter include a number of “zingers” that go beyond the chapter’s content. These questions will help determine whether you have the prerequisite skills necessary to handle the remaining chapters. If you’re serious about the RHCE and RHCT exams, this chapter should be just a review. In fact, for any user serious about Linux, this chapter should be trivial. Linux gurus should recognize that I’ve “oversimplified” a number of explanations; my intention is to keep this chapter as short as possible. However, it is okay if you do not feel comfortable with a few topics in this chapter. In fact, it’s quite natural that many experienced Linux administrators don’t use every one of the prerequisite topics in their everyday work. Many candidates are able to fill in the gaps in their knowledge with some self-study and practice. If you’re new to Linux or Unix, this chapter will not be enough for you. It’s not possible to provide sufficient detail, at least in a way that can be understood by newcomers to Linux and other Unix-based operating systems. If, after reading this chapter, you find gaps in your knowledge, refer to one of the following guides:

The Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 documentation guides, available online from . Hacking Linux Exposed, Third Edition: Linux Security Secrets and Solutions, by Casarik, Hatch, Lee, and Kurtz, gives you a detailed look at how to secure your Linux system and networks in every possible way. Mastering Fedora Core 5, by Michael Jang, covers the distribution that Red Hat used as one of the testbeds for RHEL 5.

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
SK0-003 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following MUST be done when imaging a Windows Server that will be used as a template?
A. Remove software
B. Run Windows Updates
C. Update drivers
D. Sysprep
SK0-003 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician manages a server that contains sensitive data. The server currently has two hard drives, one hosting the operating system and other generic files and the second hosting sensitive data. The technician needs to implement a technology that would guard against data loss for only the sensitive data, while adding only one additional hard drive. Which of the following should the technician implement to avoid reformatting any drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
SK0-003 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When planning for redundant power sources in a server deployment, which of the following should be purchased? (Select TWO).
A. RAID controllers
B. Multiple UPSs
C. Redundant cooling
D. Dual NICs
E. Redundant power supplies
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an advantage of RAID 0?
A. Mirrors data
B. Redundancy
C. Speed
D. Automatic hot spare
SK0-003 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is installing a server with sixteen 1 TB drives. They want the benefit of both speed and redundancy. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 50
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following types of UPS would be used with equipment that is very sensitive to power fluctuations?
A. Offline / Standby
B. Line interactive
C. Rackmount
D. Online / Double Conversion
SK0-003 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When a technician left the server room Monday evening everything was operational. When the technician returned Tuesday morning, the front bezel was off of the mail server, and it had been powered off. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?
A. TCP/IP settings
B. RAID configuration
C. Whether the power cord is attached
D. Server room access log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following server roles allows a server to translate fully qualified domain names into IP addresses?
A. Directory services server
B. NTP server
C. DHCP server
D. DNS server
SK0-003 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A technician has just finished installing a new server into a server rack. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to complete the installation documentation?
A. Update drivers, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update), create server baseline, create a new network diagram, update change management procedures
B. Create server baseline, label server, store vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams, update asset tracking information
C. Create server baseline, assign server roles, install tape drive, delete network diagram, label server, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update)
D. Install applications on server, install external drives, toss vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A small business has had unauthorized people enter their server room and damage their servers. Which of the following locks for the door would BEST prevent unauthorized people from accessing the server room?
A. Biometric
B. Keypad
C. Barcode
D. Key lock
SK0-003 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting a lack of Internet connectivity affecting their entire office. The technician suspects the issue is with their Internet Service Provider failing to provide service. Which of the following command line tools should the technician use to BEST test this theory?
A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to install a 2U server into a rack. Which of the following shows how much space, in height, needs to be available for the server to fit in the rack?
A. 1.75 inches (4.45 cm)
B. 2.5 inches (6.35 cm)
C. 3.5 inches (8.89 cm)
D. 4.25 inches (10.8 cm)
SK0-003 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable
motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parity
C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following processor technologies is typically supported on current enterprise class UNIX servers but not enterprise class Windows Servers?
A. RISC
B. CISC
C. Multi-threading
D. 64-bit
SK0-003 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
An administrator needs to connect servers to the Fiber Channel SAN. Which of the following should the administrator install in the servers to allow this connection?
A. Riser
B. HBA
C. SCSI card
D. SAS card
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents. Which of the following is the cause?
A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions
B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group
C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder
D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents
SK0-003 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows?
A. Update the time and date in the BIOS.
B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller.
C. Update the firmware to the latest version.
D. Configure IPMI on the new board.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. Immediately after the update, the server begins to report `file not found’ errors for a mission critical application. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted.
B. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files.
C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.
D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives.
SK0-003 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are the BEST tools to test connectivity between two hosts? (Select TWO).
A. netstat
B. nslookup
C. ipconfig
D. traceroute
E. pathping
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
An administrator is overseeing the backup process and tapes utilized by a former employee. Which of the following is the BEST way for the administrator to
proceed?
A. Utilize differential backups.
B. Verify the tape drives are functional.
C. Verify that the backups are functional.
D. Utilize incremental backups.
SK0-003 vce Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are managing a SharePoint farm in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You need to configure a service account to use domain credentials. What should you do first?
A. Configure the service account to use a domain user account.
B. Register the domain credentials in the Farm Administrators group.
C. Configure the service account to use a local user account.
D. Register the domain credentials as a SharePoint managed account.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has a SharePoint farm. The farm has one Search service application configured. The Search service application contains five crawl databases, all of which contain content. Contoso plans to crawl knowledge base content from its partner company Litware, Inc. The knowledge base content must be stored in a dedicated crawl database. You need to configure crawling. What should you do?
A. Add a crawl database that contains the Litware knowledge base to the existing Search service application.
B. Provision a new Search service application. Configure the service application to crawl the Litware knowledge base content.
C. Set the MaxCrawlDatabase parameter to 6.
D. Create a dedicated Microsoft SQL Server instance for the Litware crawl database.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The maximum number of crawl databases is 5 per Search service application so we need another Search service application. This maximum limit is increased to 15 with an Office 2013 update but the question doesn’t mention that this update is installed so we have to assume the question was written before the update was released.

QUESTION 3
A company uses SharePoint 2013 Server as its intranet portal. The Marketing department publishes many news articles, press releases, and corporate communications to the intranet home page. You need to ensure that the Marketing department pages do not impact intranet performance. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. In Central Administration, set up a User Policy for the Super User and Super Reader accounts.
B. Configure IIS to use the Super User and Super Reader accounts for caching.
C. Use the Farm Configuration Wizard to configure the Super User and Super Reader accounts.
D. Use Windows PowerShell to add the Super User and Super Reader accounts.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The way to correct this problem is to first create two normal user accounts in AD. These are not service accounts. You could call them domain\superuser and domain\superreader, but of course that’s up to you. The domain\superuser account needs to have a User Policy set for that gives it Full Control to the entire web application.
D: If you are using any type of claims based authentication you will need to use Windows PowerShell. And Windows PowerShell is the hipper more modern and sustainable option anyway. If you are using classic mode authentication run the following cmdlets on one of your SharePoint servers:
$w = Get-SPWebApplication “http:///”
$w.Properties[“portalsuperuseraccount”] = “domain\superuser” $w.Properties[“portalsuperreaderaccount”] = “domain\superreader” $w.Update() If you are using claims based authentication run these cmdlets on one of your SharePoint
servers:
$w = Get-SPWebApplication “http:///”
$w.Properties[“portalsuperuseraccount”] = “i:0#.w|domain\superuser” $w.Properties[“portalsuperreaderaccount”] = “i:0#.w|domain\superreader” $w.Update()
Note:
* If you have a SharePoint Publishing site and you check the event viewer every once in a while you might see the following warning in there: Object Cache: The super user account utilized by the cache is not configured. This can increase the number of cache misses, which causes the page requests to consume unneccesary system resources.
To configure the account use the following command ‘stsadm -o setproperty propertynameportalsuperuseraccount -propertyvalue account -urlwebappurl’. The account should be any account that has Full Control access to the SharePoint databases but is not an application pool account.
Additional Data:
Current default super user account: SHAREPOINT\system This means that the cache accounts for your web application aren’t properly set and that there will be a lot of cache misses. If a cache miss occurs the page the user requested will have to be build up from scratch again. Files and information will be retrieved from the database and the file system and the page will be rendered. This means an extra hit on your SharePoint and database servers and a slower page load for your end user.
Reference: Resolving “The super user account utilized by the cache is not configured.”

QUESTION 4
You are managing a SharePoint farm. Diagnostic logs are rapidly consuming disk space. You need to minimize the amount of log data written to the disk. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the log event level to Information.
B. Set the log event level to Verbose.
C. Set the log trace level to Medium.
D. Set the log trace level to Verbose.
E. Set the log event level to Warning.
F. Set the log trace level to Monitorable.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E: Event Levels
Warning, Level ID 50
Information, Level ID: 80
Verbose, Level ID: 100
F: Trace levels:
Monitorable: 15
Medium: 50
Verbose: 100
Note: When using the Unified Logging System (ULS) APIs to define events or trace logs, one of the values you must supply is the ULS level. Levels are settings that indicate the severity of an event or trace and are also used for throttling, to prevent repetitive information from flooding the log files.
Reference: Trace and Event Log Severity Levels

QUESTION 5
A company’s SharePoint environment contains three web applications. The root site collections of the web applications host the company intranet site, My Sites, and a Document Center. SharePoint is configured to restrict the default file types, which prevents users from uploading Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files. The company plans to require employees to maintain copies of their .pst files in their My Site libraries. You need to ensure that employees can upload .pst files to My Site libraries. In which location should you remove .pst files from the blocked file types?
A. The File Types area of the Search service application section of Central Administration
B. The General Security page in the site settings for the site collection
C. The Blocked File Types page in the site settings for the site collection
D. The General Security section of the Security page of Central Administration
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. You need to create four site collections. The site collections must meet the requirements described in the following table.
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What is the minimum number of web applications required to host the site collection?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* You can manage how Microsoft SharePoint Designer is used at two levels:
/ Web application level which is applicable to all site collections in the web application and to the site collection administrators. / Site collection level (managed by site collection administrators) which is applicable to all sites in the collection
along with the Designers and Owners group.
* Enable SharePoint Designer
Enable or disable SharePoint Designer 2010 use for an entire application or site collection. If you want to ensure that all designers and owners within a specific site collection can use SharePoint Designer 2010, enable this setting at the site collection level.

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm that contains a web application. A user receives an application error message that includes a Correlations. You need to identify the cause of the error. What should you do?
A. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConflictcmdlet.
B. Review the Internet Information Services (IIS) logs.
C. Run the Get-SPLogEventcmdlet.
D. Review problems and solutions in the SharePoint Health Analyzer.
70-331 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Get-SPDiagnoticConfigcmdlet retrieves ULS diagnostic configuration values of the farm.

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. You need to ensure that users can use the Newsfeed app on their My Site to aggregate user actions and system activities. Which type of cache should you configure?
A. An output cache
B. An object cache
C. A BLOB cache
D. A distributed cache
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SharePoint 2013, makes use of distributed cache to cache newsfeeds, microblogging, conversations, security trimming, OneNote client access, and even keeps the FedAuth cookie for claims based authentication on the server side, so it’s more secure, load balancer friendly, and works with webkit-based browsers that like to chop off your cookies at 64kb.

QUESTION 9
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. You need to configure the People Picker control to display only users who are members of the current site collection.
Which tool should you use?
A. Central Administration
B. Psconfig
C. Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager
D. Stsadm
70-331 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You configure the People Picker web control at the zone level for a farm by using the Stsadmsetproperty operation. By configuring the settings for the control, you can filter and restrict the results that are displayed when a user searches for a user, group, or claim. Those settings will apply to every site within the site collection.

QUESTION 10
A SharePoint environment contains a single web application at http://app1. Users access a site collection under the web application by using the URL http:// portal.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the site collection is also accessible at
What should you do?
A. Run the New-SPSite Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Set-SPSiteUrl Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Add collaboration.contoso.com as an alternate access mapping for the web application.
D. Extend the web application and add collaboration.contoso.com to the Intranet Zone.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Set-SPSiteUrl cmdlet adds or changes an URL mapping for the site. The Set-SPSiteUrl cmdlet only applies to the root site collection for a host name that is, This cmdlet cannot be directly run against a managed path site collection underneath the root.

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains a single domain named adatum.com. The network contains a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. The farm contains a single web application named Web1. Users connect to Web1 by using the URL http://webl.adatum.com. You need to configure the People Picker control to display only users who are members of organizational units (OUs) named Managers and Contractors. What should you do?
A. Modify the User Information List of the site collection.
B. Set the Peoplepicker-setsiteuseraccountdirectorypath property of the site collection.
C. Set the Peoplepicker-searchadforests property of the site collection.
D. Modify the User Policy of Web1.
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-489 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-32)

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers. Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site. What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.Document Management. DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.Document Management.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development. Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures. Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name. Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files. What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service. What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
070-489 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication for the external content type in the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally. The solution must use the SQL Server user named sqltrey to connect to the database.

QUESTION 11
You need to add code at line AJ05 to complete the implementation of the app. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

070-489 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
You need to create the external content type to support the data model. In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally

QUESTION 13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
070-489 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 14. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

QUESTION 15. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
070-489 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session D.
Transport
Answer: A

QUESTION 17. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
070-489 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 18. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

QUESTION 19. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D.LLC header
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 20. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION 21. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
070-489 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 22. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

QUESTION 23. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
070-489 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 24. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B.Transport
C.Network
D.Data Link
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is .
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
070-489 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C.A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. When inspecting frames from a capture, start with the Decode window.
A. Hex
B. Objects tab
C. Detail
D. Summary
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 28. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A

QUESTION 29. If you are baselining the time it takes to download a 2 MB file, which of the following display options would help you determine the total download time?.
A. Relative time
B. Status column
C. Delta time
D. Absolute time
070-489 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION 30. The Decode Summary window will
A. Display only Application layer protocols
B. Provide an overview of the captured frames
C. Only display legal size frames
D. Display runt or legal size frames but not oversize frames
Answer: B

QUESTION 31. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
070-489 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 32. The most common VLAN grouping technique is .
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D
070-489 dumps

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(21-38)

QUESTION 21
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 dumps

100-105 exam Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has

QUESTION 23
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, us

QUESTION 24
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.

QUESTION 25
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

QUESTION 27
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
If management expects 100 percent compliance with a procedure, which of the following sampling approaches would be most appropriate?
A. Attributes sampling.
B. Discovery sampling.
C. Targeted sampling.
D. Variables sampling.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditor is discussing an audit problem with an engagement client. While listening to the client, the internal auditor should:
A. Prepare a response to the client.
B. Take mental notes on the speaker’s nonverbal communication, as it is more important than what is being said.
C. Make sure that all details, as well as the main ideas of the client, are remembered.
D. Integrate the incoming information from the client with information that is already known.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
An auditor is using an internal control questionnaire as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following is the best reason for the auditor to interview management regarding the questionnaire responses?
A. Interviews provide the opportunity to insert questions to probe promising areas.
B. Interviews are the most efficient way to upgrade the information to the level of objective evidence.
C. Interviewing is the least costly audit technique when a large amount of information is involved.
D. Interviewing is the only audit procedure which does not require confirmation of the information that is obtained.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Many questionnaires are made up of a series of different questions that use the same response categories (for example: strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree). Some designs will have different groups of respondents answer alternate versions of the questionnaire that present the questions in different orders and reverse the orientation of the endpoints of the scale (for example: agree on the right and disagree on the left). The purpose of such questionnaire variations is to:
A. Eliminate intentional misrepresentations.
B. Reduce the effects of pattern response tendencies.
C. Test whether respondents are reading the questionnaire.
D. Make it possible to get information about more than one population parameter using the same questions.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
An auditor used a questionnaire during an interview to gather information about the nature of credit sales processing. The questionnaire did not cover some pertinent information offered by the person being interviewed, and the auditor did not document the potential problems for further investigation. The primary deficiency with the above process is that:
A. The auditor failed to consider the importance of the information offered.
B. A questionnaire was used in a situation where a structured interview should have been used.
C. Using a questionnaire precludes the auditor from documenting other information.
D. The engagement program was incomplete.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The use of standard operating procedure questionnaires in audit fieldwork can be beneficial because.
A. These questionnaires can both identify discrepancies and educate clients.
B. Standard operating procedures are essential to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations.
C. These questionnaires are more comprehensive than are other types of techniques for gathering data during fieldwork.
D. These questionnaires do not normally require prior clearance with management of the audited area.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Checklists used to assess audit risk have been criticized for all of the following reasons except:
A. Providing a false sense of security that all relevant factors are addressed.
B. Inappropriately implying equal weight to each item on the checklist.
C. Decreasing the uniformity of data acquisition.
D. Being incapable of translating the experience or sound reasoning intended to be captured by each item
on the checklist.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
A limitation of using ratio analysis in an audit engagement is that it:
A. Often uses financial information provided by management which has not been reviewed for reliability and validity.
B. Is an expensive method of testing.
C. Requires computer software in order to develop meaningful interpretations of data.
D. Is useful only when comparisons can be made across other industries.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Ben is the project manager of the NHF Project for his organization. Some delays early in the project have caused the project schedule to slip by nearly 15 percent. Management would like Ben to find a method to recoup the schedule slippage and to get the project back on track. Management is risk- adverse with this project. Which of the following methods should Ben avoid to recoup the project time?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Adding lead time
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, Ben should avoid fast tracking, as it allows complete phases of the project to overlap, and this increases project risks. Management wants to avoid risks, so fast tracking would not be helpful. Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope.
Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing adds people and costs but is relatively safe in regard to risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Critical chain is not a schedule compression technique and would not necessarily help the project get back on schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. Lead time, similar to fast tracking, can increase project risks; however, fast tracking is more risky than lead time. Lead time allows individual activities to overlap, while fast tracking allows entire project phases to overlap.

QUESTION 37
Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to create a report on her project’s performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?
A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index
B. Scope baseline
C. Performance measurement baseline
D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report. Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the scope, whereas
performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation. Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule performance. Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.

QUESTION 38
Which of the following documents captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and a timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer?
A. Project charter
B. Scope of statement
C. SOW
D. WBS
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document. Answer option B is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project. Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As(2-40)

QUESTION NO: 2
What is a key benefit of purchasing a knowledge database?
A. It provides comprehensive information on proprietary applications
B. It is inexpensive to purchase
C. It provides comprehensive information on commonly used hardware and software
D. It is inexpensive to update
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which three are the most common type of network problems? (Choose three.)
A. Collisions, congestion, and delays
B. Segment or ring does not respond, traffic limited, no workaround
C. Systems will not reboot
D. Users cannot reach connected devices, i.e., PC, servers, workstations
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?
A. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)
B. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customer
C. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptable
D. They determine what level of support the customer is receiving
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications
B. Results in customers calling less frequently
C. Helps customers make better decisions
D. Improves quality and accuracy
400-351 dumps Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 6
You are working as a help desk analyst and receive a call from the network administrator informing you that a server is down. Which action should you perform first?
A. Inform the other help desk analysts
B. Troubleshoot the problem yourself
C. Call all customers that use the server
D. Wait for customers to call the help desk
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do is ?
A. Find someone else who can understand the customer better
B. Ask the customer is there is someone else in theirorganisation for you to talk to
C. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them
D. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding them
400-351 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
What are three key strengths of critical thinkers? (Choose three.)
A. They are logical
B. They are empathetic
C. They are analytical
D. They areorganised
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 9
A customer calls with a critical problem for a product that is no longer supported by the help desk. What do you do? (Choose two.)
A. Determine what the real need is
B. Develop alternatives
C. Inform the customer that the product is not supported
D. Apologise for not being able to assist the customer
400-351 vce Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 10
Which metric indicates how long a customer has to wait before talking to an analyst?
A. Average talk time
B. Average call time
C. Average speed of answer
D. Average capture time
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement about service level agreements (SLAs) is true?
A. SLAs are used to document service provider expectations only
B. SLAs are used to document customer and service provider expectations
C. SLAs are used to document customer expectations only
D. SLAs are not used to document customer or service provider expectations
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12
In what three ways can you convey to the customer a desire and ability to help? (Choose three.)
A. Be confident
B. Be agreeable to all customer opinions
C. Be talkative
D. Be efficient
E. Be enthusiastic, but natural
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 13
Which four statements about self-help materials are true? (Choose four.)
A. Their location should be explained to employees
B. They should be user-friendly
C. They should contain accurate information
D. They should be timely and relevant
E. They should replace the need for instructor-led training
400-351 dumps Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 14
In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)
A. When you have exhausted your possibilities
B. When your time is limited
C. When you need to build rapport
D. When you need the customer to elaborate
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 15
Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)
A. Identify changes to products, services and processes
B. Determine management bonuses
C. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help desk
D. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnel
400-351 pdf Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 16
Which three customer resources, if accessible on a company intranet, directly decrease call volume? (Choose three.)
A. Corporate home pages
B. Work/problem ticket request pages
C. Frequently asked questions (FAQs)
D. Knowledge databases
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 17
What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
A. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
B. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
C. Maintain a clean environment
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
400-351 vce Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 18
Who is responsible for maintaining a working environment conducive to effective inter departmental relationships?
A. Executive management
B. Department managers
C. Everyone
D. Human resources
400-351 exam Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
You are new to the help desk and are asked a question you cannot answer. Which two actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Suggest that the customer ask a peer
B. Ask a peer
C. Escalate the problem
D. Use reference documentation
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 20
Which statement about telephone etiquette is true?
A. Gum chewing is acceptable as long as the customer cannot hear it
B. Eating is okay as long as you obtain the customer’s consent
C. “Please hold” is an appropriate way to answer the telephone when you are busy
D. It is customary to pick up the telephone between one to three rings
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21. A customer has an AMS500 consisting of:
Unit 00: RKM with six 300GB FC HDDs in position 00 to 05.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01. You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group. What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 22. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
QUESTION NO: 23. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
400-351 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 25. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0. Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
400-351 vce Answer: ADE

QUESTION NO: 26 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
400-351 exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 27 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

QUESTION NO: 29 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255. 255. 240.
A. True
B. False
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to the same destination IP address in different VPNs. How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 31 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
400-351 pdf Answer: ABC

QUESTION NO: 32 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B.False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
400-351 vce Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 34 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all related routing information.
400-351 exam Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 35 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message. Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

QUESTION NO: 36 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 37 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
400-351 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
400-351 pdf Answer: ABCD

QUESTION NO: 40 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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