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QUESTION 1
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), what must be included in a written agreement between the
controller and processor in relation to processing conducted on the controller\\’s behalf?
A. An obligation on the processor to report any personal data breach to the controller within 72 hours.
B. An obligation on both parties to report any serious personal data breach to the supervisory authority.
C. An obligation on both parties to agree to a termination of the agreement if the other party is responsible for a
personal data breach.
D. An obligation on the processor to assist the controller in complying with the controller\\’s obligations to notify the
supervisory authority about personal data breaches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the main reason to begin with 3-5 key metrics during the program development process?
A. To avoid undue financial costs.
B. To keep the focus on the main organizational objectives.
C. To minimize selective data use.
D. To keep the process limited to as few people as possible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data
protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video
viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection
circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers.
Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two
million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that
“appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as
competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and
media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin,
Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down.
Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company,
Medialite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on
his vision of Medialite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards
and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy
but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he
calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to
life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have absolutely the highest standards,”
he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data
protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want
the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.”
You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous
mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps.
The company has achieved a level of privacy protection that established new best practices for the
industry. What is a logical next step to help ensure a high level of protection?
A. Brainstorm methods for developing an enhanced privacy framework
B. Develop a strong marketing strategy to communicate the company\\’s privacy practices
C. Focus on improving the incident response plan in preparation for any breaks in protection
D. Shift attention to privacy for emerging technologies as the company begins to use them
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
It\\’s just what you were afraid of. Without consulting you, the information technology director at your
organization launched a new initiative to encourage employees to use personal devices for conducting
business. The initiative made purchasing a new, high-specification laptop computer an attractive option,
with discounted laptops paid for as a payroll deduction spread over a year of paychecks. The organization
is also paying the sales taxes. It\\’s a great deal, and after a month, more than half the organization\\’s
employees have signed on and acquired new laptops. Walking through the facility, you see them happily
customizing and comparing notes on their new computers, and at the end of the day, most take their
laptops with them, potentially carrying personal data to their homes or other unknown locations. It\\’s
enough to give you data-protection nightmares, and you\\’ve pointed out to the information technology
Director and many others in the organization the potential hazards of this new practice, including the
inevitability of eventual data loss or theft.
Today you have in your office a representative of the organization\\’s marketing department who shares with
you, reluctantly, a story with potentially serious consequences. The night before, straight from work, with
laptop in hand, he went to the Bull and Horn Pub to play billiards with his friends. A fine night of sport and
socializing began, with the laptop “safely” tucked on a bench, beneath his jacket. Later that night, when it
was time to depart, he retrieved the jacket, but the laptop was gone. It was not beneath the bench or on
another bench nearby. The waitstaff had not seen it. His friends were not playing a joke on him. After a
sleepless night, he confirmed it this morning, stopping by the pub to talk to the cleanup crew. They had not
found it. The laptop was missing. Stolen, it seems. He looks at you, embarrassed and upset.
You ask him if the laptop contains any personal data from clients, and, sadly, he nods his head, yes. He believes it
contains files on about 100 clients, including names, addresses and governmental identification numbers. He sighs and
places his head in his hands in despair.
In order to determine the best course of action, how should this incident most productively be viewed?
A. As the accidental loss of personal property containing data that must be restored.
B. As a potential compromise of personal information through unauthorized access.
C. As an incident that requires the abrupt initiation of a notification campaign.
D. As the premeditated theft of company data, until shown otherwise.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Perhaps Jack Kelly should have stayed in the U.S. He enjoys a formidable reputation inside the company,
Special Handling Shipping, for his work in reforming certain “rogue” offices. Last year, news broke that a
police sting operation had revealed a drug ring operating in the Providence, Rhode Island office in the
United States. Video from the office\\’s video surveillance cameras leaked to news operations showed a
drug exchange between Special Handling staff and undercover officers.
In the wake of this incident, Kelly had been sent to Providence to change the “hands off” culture that upper
management believed had let the criminal elements conduct their illicit transactions. After a few weeks
under Kelly\\’s direction, the office became a model of efficiency and customer service. Kelly monitored his
workers\\’ activities using the same cameras that had recorded the illegal conduct of their former coworkers.
Now Kelly has been charged with turning around the office in Cork, Ireland, another trouble spot. The
company has received numerous reports of the staff leaving the office unattended. When Kelly arrived, he
found that even when present, the staff often spent their days socializing or conducting personal business
on their mobile phones. Again, he observed their behaviors using surveillance cameras. He issued written
reprimands to six staff members based on the first day of video alone.
Much to Kelly\\’s surprise and chagrin, he and the company are now under investigation by the Data
Protection Commissioner of Ireland for allegedly violating the privacy rights of employees. Kelly was told
that the company\\’s license for the cameras listed facility security as their main use, but he does not know
why this matters. He has pointed out to his superiors that the company\\’s training programs on privacy
protection and data collection mention nothing about surveillance video.
You are a privacy protection consultant, hired by the company to assess this incident, report on the legal
and compliance issues, and recommend next steps.
What does this example best illustrate about training requirements for privacy protection?
A. Training needs must be weighed against financial costs.
B. Training on local laws must be implemented for all personnel.
C. Training must be repeated frequently to respond to new legislation.
D. Training must include assessments to verify that the material is mastered.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Natalia, CFO of the Nationwide Grill restaurant chain, had never seen her fellow executives so anxious.
Last week, a data processing firm used by the company reported that its system may have been hacked,
and customer data such as names, addresses, and birthdays may have been compromised. Although the
attempt was proven unsuccessful, the scare has prompted several Nationwide Grill executives to question
the company\\’s privacy program at today\\’s meeting.
Alice, a vice president, said that the incident could have opened the door to lawsuits, potentially damaging Nationwide
Grill\\’s market position. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), Brendan, tried to assure her that even if there had been an
actual breach, the chances of a successful suit against the company were slim. But Alice remained unconvinced.
Spencer – a former CEO and currently a senior advisor – said that he had always warned against the use of contractors
for data processing. At the very least, he argued, they should be held contractually liable for telling customers about any
security incidents. In his view, Nationwide Grill should not be forced to soil the company name for a problem it did not
cause.
One of the business development (BD) executives, Haley, then spoke, imploring everyone to see reason. “Breaches
can happen, despite organizations\\’ best efforts,” she remarked. “Reasonable preparedness is key.” She reminded
everyone of the incident seven years ago when the large grocery chain Tinkerton\\’s had its financial information
compromised after a large order of Nationwide Grill frozen dinners. As a longtime BD executive with a solid
understanding of Tinkerton\\’s\\’s corporate culture, built up through many years of cultivating relationships, Haley was
able to successfully manage the company\\’s incident response.
Spencer replied that acting with reason means allowing security to be handled by the security functions within the
company – not BD staff. In a similar way, he said, Human Resources (HR) needs to do a better job training employees
to prevent incidents. He pointed out that Nationwide Grill employees are overwhelmed with posters, emails, and memos
from both HR and the ethics department related to the company\\’s privacy program. Both the volume and the
duplication of information means that it is often ignored altogether.
Spencer said, “The company needs to dedicate itself to its privacy program and set regular in-person trainings for all
staff once a month.”
Alice responded that the suggestion, while well-meaning, is not practical. With many locations, local HR departments
need to have flexibility with their training schedules. Silently, Natalia agreed.
How could the objection to Spencer\\’s training suggestion be addressed?
A. By requiring training only on an as-needed basis.
B. By offering alternative delivery methods for trainings.
C. By introducing a system of periodic refresher trainings.
D. By customizing training based on length of employee tenure.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following controls does the PCI DSS framework NOT require?
A. Implement strong asset control protocols.
B. Implement strong access control measures.
C. Maintain an information security policy.
D. Maintain a vulnerability management program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data
protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video
viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection
circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers.
Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two
million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that
“appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as
competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and
media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin,
Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down.
Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Medialite, which is
just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Medialite building its
brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of
a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in
privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work
responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have
absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in
privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I
want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.”
You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you
depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps.
You are charged with making sure that privacy safeguards are in place for new products and initiatives. What is the best
way to do this?
A. Hold a meeting with stakeholders to create an interdepartmental protocol for new initiatives
B. Institute Privacy by Design principles and practices across the organization
C. Develop a plan for introducing privacy protections into the product development stage
D. Conduct a gap analysis after deployment of new products, then mend any gaps that are revealed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements?
A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties
B. Look for overlaps in laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed
C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance
D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations, and inform stakeholders why they are applicable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As the Director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with
your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following
a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a
reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your
program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development.
You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked
toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the
program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear
understanding of the need for change.
Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among
both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the
use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the
costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key
decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face
meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved
sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place.
Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected
data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your
approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective.
You are left contemplating:
What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention
program?
How can you build on your success?
What are the next action steps?
What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program
being developed at Consolidated?
A. Privacy by Design.
B. Privacy Step Assessment.
C. Information Security Planning.
D. Innovation Privacy Standards.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several
countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts
officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you
presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor
stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and
confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent
healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor
forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the
data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They
tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the
notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever
you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints.
You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most
recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the
information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email
notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick
advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want
to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth.
The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in
other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to
veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you
wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
What is the most concerning limitation of the incident-response council?
A. You convened it to diffuse blame
B. The council has an overabundance of attorneys
C. It takes eight hours of emails to come to a decision
D. The leader just joined the company as a consultant
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several
countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts
officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you
presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor
stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and
confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent
healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor
forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the
data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They
tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the
notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever
you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints.
You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most
recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email
notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick
advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this
situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone
emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it
is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three
lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the
day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit
down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern?
A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience
B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year
C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit
D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Ben works in the IT department of IgNight, Inc., a company that designs lighting solutions for its clients.
Although IgNight\\’s customer base consists primarily of offices in the US, some individuals have been so
impressed by the unique aesthetic and energy-saving design of the light fixtures that they have requested
IgNight\\’s installations in their homes across the globe.
One Sunday morning, while using his work laptop to purchase tickets for an upcoming music festival, Ben
happens to notice some unusual user activity on company files. From a cursory review, all the data still
appears to be where it is meant to be but he can\\’t shake off the feeling that something is not right. He
knows that it is a possibility that this could be a colleague performing unscheduled maintenance, but he
recalls an email from his company\\’s security team reminding employees to be on alert for attacks from a
known group of malicious actors specifically targeting the industry.
Ben is a diligent employee and wants to make sure that he protects the company but he does not want to
bother his hard-working colleagues on the weekend. He is going to discuss the matter with this manager first thing in the
morning but wants to be prepared so he can demonstrate his knowledge in this area and plead his case for a
promotion.
If this were a data breach, how is it likely to be categorized?
A. Availability Breach.
B. Authenticity Breach.
C. Confidentiality Breach.
D. Integrity Breach.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 exam questions-q1
An engineer configured multicast routing on client\\’s network. What is the effect of this multicast implementation?
A. R2 floods information about R1 throughout the multicast domain.
B. R2 is unable to share information because the ip pirn autorp listener command is missing.
C. R1 floods information about R2 throughout the multicast domain.
D. R2 is elected as the RP for this domain.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which utility must be used to locate MPLS faults?
A. QoS
B. MPLS LSP ping
C. MPLStraceroute
D. EEM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

350-501 exam questions-q3
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure the both keyword to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html


QUESTION 5

350-501 exam questions-q5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the URL used for with REST API?
A. It is used to initiate an FTP session to save a running configuration of a device.
B. It is used to send a message to the APIC to perform an operation on a managed object or class operator.
C. It is used to contact a URL filter to determine the efficacy of a web address.
D. It is used to send a TACACS + authentication request to a server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

350-501 exam questions-q5
Refer to the exhibit. If router RA is configured as shown, which IPv4 multicast address space does it use?
A. 224.0.0.0/8
B. 225.0.0.0/8
C. 232.0.0.0/8
D. 239.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/multicast/configuration_guide/b_mc_3se_3850_cg/b_mc_3se_3850_cg_chapter_01011.html


QUESTION 7

350-501 exam questions-q7
Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because they have different IS-IS area types.
B. The two routers successfully form a neighbor relationship.
C. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because the authentication configuration is missing.
D. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because their system IDs are different.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8

350-501 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. R1 can support a peer that is configured for LDP SSO/NSF as the peer recovers from an outage.
B. R1can support a graceful restart operation on the peer, even if graceful restart is disabled on the peer.
C. R1 can failover to any peer.
D. R1 can failover only to a peer that is configured for LDF SSO/NSF.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/kwoodwar/fsgr29s.html


QUESTION 9

350-501 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html


QUESTION 10
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 11
What is a role of NSO?
A. It automates the deployment of access points with its built-in wireless LAN controller.
B. It manages WAN infrastructure using a virtual switch.
C. It provides full lifecycle management of a device.
D. It resides on a hypervisor that runs the Windows OS.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
What does DWDM use to combine multiple optical signals?
A. frequency
B. IP protocols
C. time slots
D. wavelength
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13

350-501 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 and its peer R2 reside on the same subnet in the network. If an engineer implements this
configuration to R1, how does it make connections to R2?
A. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
B. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
C. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
D. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A company uses Dynamics 365 Marketing. The company uses a third-party app to send email surveys to prospects to
better understand their business needs.
There is currently no link to prospect records and users report that the survey management process is manual and is
difficult to manage.
You need to automate the survey process and streamline collection and analysis of responses.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a survey form in Dynamics 365 Marketing and create a campaign to send it to out and collect data.
B. Use Power Automate to automatically send Forms Pro surveys.
C. Use Forms Pro to compile results from the existing third-party app.
D. Use Forms Pro to collect and analyze survey results.
E. Create surveys in Dynamics 365 Marketing by using Questionnaire.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/forms-pro/get-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/forms-pro/send-survey-flow


QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A customer is investigating the insight capabilities of Dynamics 365.
Match each app to its goal.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate app from the column on the left to its goal on the right. Each app may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-901 exam questions-q2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/basics/service-insightsreports


QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
A company sells and maintains heating and air conditioning equipment. The company uses Dynamics 365 Field
Service.
The company is evaluating Field Service Mobile for technicians.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-901 exam questions-q3

Box 1: Yes
When technicians are working on a work order they can add your notes, attachments, pictures, and signatures.
Box 2: Yes
Field Service Mobile lets technicians work online or offline. Online mode requires an Internet connection; offline mode
does not.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/field-service/field-service-mobile-app-user-guide

QUESTION 4
A service company has many agents who create cases. Case titles often use different words with the same meaning.The company wants to use artificial intelligence to quickly and accurately spot trends in service.
You need to recommend a solution for the company.
What should you recommend?
A. Sales Insights
B. Customer Service
C. Customer Service Insights
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
A company wants to ensure they comply with common data privacy standards and regulations. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-901 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

mb-901 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
A company plans to deploy Dynamics 365 Sales.
Match each term to its definition.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate deployment type from the column on the left to its definition on the right.
Each deployment type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-901 exam questions-q6

 Correct Answer:

mb-901 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance.
The company conducts business in multiple countries/regions across Europe.
You need to recommend solutions for setting up currency options.
Which currency accounting types should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate currency accounting types
to the correct requirements. Each currency accounting type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-901 exam questions-q7

 Correct Answer:

mb-901 exam questions-q7-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/configure-currencies-dyn365-finance/2-currency-conv


QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-901 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

mb-901 exam questions-q8-2

Box 1: Yes
Key features include:
Inventory, purchasing, and returns capabilities to manage truck stock, purchase order requests and fulfillment, and
product returns.
Box 2: No
Field Service Mobile lets you work online or offline. Online mode requires an Internet connection; offline mode does not.
Box 3: Yes
Dynamics 365 Field Service is designed to use the broader Dynamics 365 Service Level Agreement (SLA) functionality
in Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/field-service/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/field-service/field-service-mobile-app-user-guide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/field-service/sla-work-orders
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-service/define-service-level-agreements

QUESTION 9
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows sales team
members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities. Sales team members must be able to enter the
information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views
and reports. What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
A plumbing repair company uses Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
The company wants to better serve customers by offering quicker response times and improving processes based on
customer feedback.
You need to recommend solutions for the company.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-901 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

mb-901 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
A non-profit company is considering moving their Dynamics 365 solution from on-premises to online.
You need to help the company understand where their data will be stored after the move and who will own the data.
How should you respond? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-901 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A company uses Dynamics 365 Field Service. The company plans to use built-in scheduling functionality.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

mb-901 exam questions-q12

QUESTION 13
A medical clinic uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The clinic wants to rapidly implement a solution that optimizes coordination
of care for patients.
You need to recommend a solution for the clinic.
What should you recommend?
A. Canvas app
B. Portal
C. Healthcare Accelerator
D. Insights
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/common-data-model/health-accelerator

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Practice Test! Cisco CCNP 300-615 Exam Questions And Answers Free Share

QUESTION 1
A fabric interconnect fails to start and the console displays the loader prompt. Which two actions resolve the issue?
(Choose two.)
A. Load an uncorrupt bootloader image.
B. Load an uncorrupt kickstart image.
C. Reconnect L1/L2 cables between the Fis.
D. Reformat the fabric interconnect.
E. Load the correct version of the boot image.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting a custom AV pair that was created by a client on an external authentication server to
map a read-only role for a specific security domain. Which AV pair solves the problem?
A. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1//Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2
B. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Write_Role_1|Read_Role_2
C. shell=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2
D. shell:domains=Security_Domain_1/Read_Role_1|Read_Role_2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

300-615 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager is being upgraded using the Auto Install feature, but the FSM fails. Which
action resolves the issue?
A. Acknowledge the primary fabric interconnect.
B. Remove the service pack from the subordinate fabric interconnect.
C. Clear the startup version of the default infrastructure pack.
D. Upgrade the firmware of the infrastructure firmware by using the force option.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4

300-615 exam questions-q4

Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to bind the Ethernet interface to vFC fails. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Add the FCoE VLAN to the allowed VLAN list.
B. Configure the FCoE VLAN that corresponds to the vFC VSAN as a private VLAN.
C. Configure the interface as a trunk port.
D. Configure the interface to use the native VLAN of the trunk port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

300-615 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. Interface fc1/5 is offline. Which action should be taken to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Activate the correct zoneset for VSAN 100.
B. Update the FLOGI database to contain the FLOGI entries for interface fc1/5 in VSAN 100.
C. Update the FCNs database to contain names for VSAN 100.
D. Configure the upstream ports and the server ports to be in VSAN 100.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A remote device connected to fc 1/2 fails to come online. Which do you configure to resolve the
issue?

300-615 exam questions-q6

A. remote and local ports to be in the correct VSAN
B. local switch for NPV
C. remote device for NPIV
D. port on remote device as an f-port-channel
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

300-615 exam questions-q7

300-615 exam questions-7-2

Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the WWPNs on the
left to the correct zones on the right.

300-615 exam questions-7-3

QUESTION 8
A network administrator attempts to install an application in the Cisco NX-OS Guest shell and receives an error that
there is not enough space on the disk. Which command must the administrator run to increase the disk space available
in the Guest shell?
A. guestshell growdisk rootfs [size-in-MB]
B. guestshell pvextend rootfs [size-in-MB]
C. guestshell resize rootfs [size-in-MB]
D. guestshell resize2fs rootfs [size-in-MB]
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9

300-615 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF adjacency between Router-A and Router-B cannot reach the FULL state. Which action
resolves the issue?
A. Adjust the MTU on Router-A to 1600.
B. Disable the check of the MTU value.
C. Set the OSPF media type to point-to-point.
D. Adjust the MTU on Router-B to 1604.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A customer configures HSRP between two data centers that are interconnected with OTV. The configuration succeeds,
but traffic between two ESXi virtual hosts on the same site is routed suboptimally through the OTV overlay. Which two
actions optimize the traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Disable first-hop redundancy.
B. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the OTV edge devices.
C. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the ESXi vSwitch.
D. Filter HSRP traffic by using a Layer 3 VACL on the ESXi vSwitch.
E. Filter HSRP by using a Layer 2 MAC-list on the OTV edge devices.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the actions from the left onto the faults that they resolve on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

300-615 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

300-615 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12

300-615 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. vPC between switch1 and switch2 is not working. Which two actions are needed to fix the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Match vPC domain ID between the two devices.
B. Configure IP address on the interface.
C. Activate VLANs on the vPC.
D. Configure vPC peer link and vPC peer keepalive correctly.
E. Configure one of the switches as primary for the vPC.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
You must troubleshoot an issue with DAI on a Cisco Nexus switch. Drag and drop the DAI configuration steps from the
left into the order they must be implemented in on the right.

300-615 exam questions-q13

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Vendor: Splunk
Certifications: Splunk Certifications
Exam Code: SPLK-1003
Exam Name: Splunk Enterprise Certified Admin
Updated: Nov 20, 2020
Q&As: 98

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QUESTION 1
Which Splunk component consolidates the individual results and prepares reports in a distributed environment?
A. Indexers
B. Forwarder
C. Search head
D. Search peers
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
When configuring HTTP Event Collector (HEC) input, how would one ensure the events have been indexed?
A. Enable indexer acknowledgment.
B. Enable forwarder acknowledgment.
C. splunk check-integrity -index
D. index=_internal component=ACK | stats count by host
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 3
After how many warnings within a rolling 30-day period will a license violation occur with an enforced Enterprise
license?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here

QUESTION 4
Which Splunk forwarder type allows parsing of data before forwarding to an indexer?
A. Universal forwarder
B. Parsing forwarder
C. Heavy forwarder
D. Advanced forwarder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a valid distribution search group? A)

pass4sureshop SPLK-1003 exam questions-q5

A. option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How is a remote monitor input distributed to forwarders?
A. As an app.
B. As a forward.conf file.
C. As a monitor.conf file.
D. As a forwarder monitor profile.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements accurately describes using SSL to secure the feed from a forwarder?
A. It does not encrypt the certificate password.
B. SSL automatically compresses the feed by default.
C. It requires that the forwarder be set to compressed=true.
D. It requires that the receiver be set to compression=true.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here


QUESTION 8
In which scenario would a Splunk Administrator want to enable a data integrity check when creating an index?
A. To ensure that hot buckets are still open for writes and have not been forced to roll to a cold state
B. To ensure that configuration files have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes
C. To ensure that user passwords have not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes.
D. To ensure that data has not been tampered with for auditing and/or legal purposes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the correct order of steps in Duo Multifactor Authentication?
A. 1 Request Login
2. Connect to SAML server
3 Duo MFA
4 Create User session
5 Authentication Granted 6. Log into Splunk
B. 1. Request Login 2 Duo MFA
3. Authentication Granted 4 Connect to SAML server
5.
Log into Splunk
6.
Create User session
C. 1 Request Login 2 Check authentication / group mapping 3 Authentication Granted
4.
Duo MFA
5.
Create User session
6.
Log into Splunk
D. 1 Request Login 2 Duo MFA
3. Check authentication / group mapping
4 Create User session
5. Authentication Granted
6 Log into Splunk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which Splunk indexer operating system platform is supported when sending logs from a Windows universal forwarder?
A. Any OS platform
B. Linux platform only
C. Windows platform only.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which feature in Splunk allows Event Breaking, Timestamp extractions, and any advanced configurations found in
props.conf to be validated all through the UI?
A. Apps
B. Search
C. Data preview
D. Forwarder inputs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following enables compression for universal forwarders in outputs. conf ? A)
pass4sureshop SPLK-1003 exam questions-q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which setting in indexes. conf allows data retention to be controlled by time?
A. maxDaysToKeep
B. moveToFrozenAfter
C. maxDataRetentionTime
D. frozenTimePeriodlnSecs
Correct Answer: D  click here
 

Click here for more other practice questions.

Other Splunk Certification Exams

SPLK-1005 – Splunk Cloud Certified Admin
SPLK-1002 – Splunk Core Certified Power User Exam
SPLK-2002 – Splunk Enterprise Certified Architect

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Free CompTIA Cloud+ CV1-003 Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will mitigate the risk of users who have access to an instance modifying the system
configurations?
A. Implement whole-disk encryption
B. Deploy the latest OS patches
C. Deploy an anti-malware solution
D. Implement mandatory access control
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A company has decided to get multiple compliance and security certifications for its public cloud environment. However,
the company has few staff members to handle the extra workload, and it has limited knowledge of the current
infrastructure.
Which of the following will help the company meet the compliance requirements as quickly as possible?
A. DLP
B. CASB
C. FIM
D. NAC
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
An organization is hosting a DNS domain with private and public IP ranges.
Which of the following should be implemented to achieve ease of management?
A. Network peering
B. A CDN solution
C. A SDN solution
D. An IPAM solution
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.infoblox.com/glossary/ipam-ip-address-management/

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator wants to have near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between an
application server and its clients on the Internet. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement to
achieve this objective?
A. A stateful firewall
B. DLP
C. DNSSEC
D. Network flows
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
The security team for a large corporation is investigating a data breach. The team members are all trying to do the same
tasks but are interfering with each other\\’s work. Which of the following did the team MOST likely forget to implement?
A. Incident type categories
B. A calling tree
C. Change management
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A systems administrator is configuring RAID for a new server. This server will host files for users and replicate to an
identical server. While redundancy is necessary, the most important need is to maximize storage. Which of the following
RAID types should the administrator choose?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://mysupport.netapp.com/NOW/public/eseries/sam_archive1150/index.html#page/GUID-8538272AB802-49D9-9EA2-96C82DAD26A2/GUID-1BF9A33B-C3A1-487C-B8D8-5F2C14E3ED2E.html

QUESTION 7
A cloud administrator needs to implement a mechanism to monitor the expense of the company\\’s cloud resources.
Which of the following is the BEST option to execute this task with minimal effort?
A. Ask the cloud provider to send a daily expense report
B. Set custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds
C. Use the API to collect expense information from cloud resources
D. Implement a financial tool to monitor cloud resource expenses
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
An organization has multiple VLANs configured to segregate the network traffic. Following is the breakdown of the
network segmentation:
1.
Production traffic (10.10.0.0/24)
2.
Network backup (10.20.0.0/25)
3.
Virtual IP network (10.20.0.128/25) The following configuration exists on the server:

pass4sureshop cv1-003 exam questions-q8

The backup administrator observes that the weekly backup is failing for this server. Which of the following commands
should the administrator run to identify the issue?
A. ROUTE PRINT
B. NETSTAT -A
C. IPCONFIG /ALL
D. NET SM
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.toolbox.com/tech/operating-systems/blogs/using-the-route-print-command-inwindows-7-022310/

QUESTION 9
An IaaS provider has numerous devices and services that are commissioned and decommissioned automatically on an
ongoing basis. The cloud administrator needs to implement a solution that will help reduce administrative overhead.
Which of the following will accomplish this task?
A. IPAM
B. NAC
C. NTP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.infoblox.com/glossary/ipam-ip-address-management/


QUESTION 10
A cloud administrator is reviewing a new application implementation document. The administrator needs to make sure
all the known bugs and fixes are applied, and unwanted ports and services are disabled. Which of the following
techniques would BEST help the administrator assess these business requirements?
A. Performance testing
B. Usability testing
C. Vulnerability testing
D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A systems administrator is provisioning VMs in a cloud environment and has been told to select an OS build with the
furthest end-of-life date. Which of the following OS builds would be BEST for the systems administrator to use?
A. Open-source
B. LTS
C. Canary
D. Beta
E. Stable
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A cloud engineer is responsible for managing two cloud environments from different MSPs. The security department
would like to inspect all traffic from the two cloud environments.
Which of the following network topology solutions should the cloud engineer implement to reduce long-term
maintenance?
A. Chain
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Hub and spoke
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Company A has acquired Company B and is in the process of integrating their cloud resources. Company B needs
access to Company A\\’s cloud resources while retaining its IAM solution. Which of the following should be
implemented?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Identity federation
D. Directory service
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://medium.com/@dinika.15/identity-federation-a-brief-introduction-f2f823f8795a

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Microsoft Role-based MS-600 Exam Dumps Practice Test

QUESTION 1
You are building a Microsoft Outlook Web Add-in.
You need to persist user preferences between devices by using the minimum amount of development effort.
Which API should you use?
A. the Microsoft Graph API
B. the REST API for the Blob service
C. the JavaScript API for Microsoft Office
D. the Table service REST API
Correct Answer: C
You can persist add-in state and settings with the JavaScript API for Office.
The JavaScript API for Office provides the Settings, RoamingSettings, and CustomProperties objects for saving add-in
state across sessions
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/develop/persisting-add-in-state-and-settings


QUESTION 2
You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution
must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you
use?
A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code
Correct Answer: A
In webserver apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by
validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session
a cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q2

In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this
case, the webserver app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0
authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types


QUESTION 3
You are building email notifications for an expensing system.
When a user receives an email notification, the email will contain a comment field. When the user submits a comment,
the data will be returned to the expensing system for processing.
What should you do to implement the notification by using the minimum amount of development effort?
A. Create a Microsoft Office Add-in that has an action pane to display the notifications
B. Leverage Microsoft Graph notifications
C. Leverage the Azure SignalR Service and implement web notifications
D. Configure the expensing system to send actionable messages
Correct Answer: D
Whether you are filling out a survey, approving an expense report, or updating a CRM sales opportunity, Actionable
Messages enable you to take quick actions right from within Outlook. Developers can now embed actions in their emails
or
notifications, elevating user engagement with their services, and increasing organizational productivity.
Office 365 provides two solutions to enhance productivity with Outlook Actionable Messages: actionable messages via email and actionable messages via Office 365 Connectors.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook/actionable-messages/


QUESTION 4
You are developing an application that will run as an overnight background service on a server. The service will access
web-hosted resources by using the application\\’s identity and the OAuth 2.0 client credentials grant flow.
You register the application and grant permissions. The tenant administrator grants admin consent to the application.
You need to get the access token from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
Which URI should you use for the POST request? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q4-2

Oauth2 client_id client_secret
The authorization code flow begins with the client directing the user to the /authorize endpoint.
Box 1: token
Use the authorization code to request an access token.
Now that you\\’ve acquired an authorization code and have been granted permission by the user, you can redeem the
code for an access token to the desired resource, by sending a POST request to the /token endpoint:
Box 2: authorization_code
Use the authorization code to request an access token.
Example:
// Line breaks for legibility only
POST /{tenant}/oauth2/token HTTP/1.1
Host: https://login.microsoftonline.com
Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded
grant_type=authorization_code
…etc.
Note: At a high level, the entire authorization flow for an application looks a bit like this:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q4-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v1-protocols-oauth-code

QUESTION 5
You have a line-of-business API that is secured by using the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You deploy a solution to the app catalog. The solution requests permission to the API.
What should you do in the SharePoint admin center to ensure that the solution can access the API?
A. Create a SharePoint security group and add the solution
B. Create an access policy
C. Enable sandbox solutions
D. Approve a pending permission request
Correct Answer: D
Developers building a SharePoint Framework solution that requires access to specific resources secured with Azure AD
list these resources along with the required permission scopes in the solution manifest. When deploying the solution
package to the app catalog, SharePoint creates permission requests and prompts the administrator to manage the
requested permissions. For each requested permission, tenant administrators can decide whether they want to grant or
deny the specific permission. All permissions are granted to the whole tenant and not to a specific application that has requested them. When the tenant administrator grants specific permission, it is added to the SharePoint Online Client
Extensibility Azure AD application, which is provisioned by Microsoft in every Azure AD and which is used by the
SharePoint Framework in the OAuth flow to provide solutions with valid access tokens.


QUESTION 6
Which tool can you use to generate a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution?
A. Eclipse
B. App Studio
C. Yacc
D. Yeoman
Correct Answer: D
Yeoman helps you to kickstart new projects, prescribing best practices and tools to help you stay productive. Using the
Yeoman SharePoint generator, developers are able to scaffold new client-side solution projects to build, package, and
deploy SharePoint solutions. The generator provides common build tools, boilerplate code, and a common playground
website to host web parts for testing.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/toolchain/scaffolding-projects-using-yeomansharepoint-generator


QUESTION 7
You plan to deploy a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution to the tenant app catalog.
Which attribute should you configure in the package-solution.json file to ensure that the solution is available immediately
to all site collections?
A. skipFeatureDeployment
B. zipped package
C. ClientSideComponentId
D. isDomainIsolated
Correct Answer: A
You can configure your SharePoint Framework components to be immediately available across the tenant when the
the solution package is installed in the tenant app catalog. This can be configured by using the skipFeatureDeployment
the attribute in the package-solution.json file.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/tenant-scoped-deployment

QUESTION 8
You plan to develop a Microsoft Teams bot tghat will return product information to users by using an adaptive card.
You need to card to contain a button that will invoke a web search for the product.
What should use?
A. An action-based messaging extension
B. A task module
C. A search-based messaging extension
D. An outgoing webhook
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q10

The partial table lists the events that your bot can receive and take action on.
Box 3: Yes
The messageReaction event is sent when a user adds or removes his or her reaction to a message which was originally
sent by your bot.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/platform/resources/bot-v3/bots-notifications
 

QUESTION 11
What should you add to a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution to ensure that the solution can be used as a Microsoft
Teams tab?
A. the TeamsTab value to the component type property in the manifest file
B. a manifest file to the Teams folder in the solution
C. the TeamsTab value to the supported hosts property in the manifest file
D. a manifest file to the web parts folder in the solution
Correct Answer: D
You need to update the web part manifest to make it available for Microsoft Teams. Locate the manifest JSON file for the
web part you want to make available to Teams and modify the supported host’s properties to include “TeamsTab”.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-as-ms-teamstab


QUESTION 12
You are developing a human resources application that will show users where they are in their company\\’s organization
chart. You are adding a new feature that will display the name of a user\\’s manager inside the application.
You need to create a REST query to retrieve the information. The solution must minimize the amount of data retrieved.
Which query should you use?
A. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/manager?$select=displayName
B. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/people?$filter=jobTitle eq
\\’manager\\’and$select=displayName
C. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/contacts?$filter=jobTitle eq \\’manager\\’
D. GET https://graph.microsoft.com/v1.0/users/{UserPricipalName}/manager
Correct Answer: A
Get user\\’s manager. Returns the user or organizational contact assigned as the user\\’s manager. Syntax:
GET /me/manager GET /users/{id | userPrincipalName}/manager Only the name of the user\\’s manager should be
displayed so we use ?select=displayname
To specify a different set of properties to return than the default set provided by the Graph, use the $select query option.
The $select option allows for choosing a subset or superset of the default set returned. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/user-list-manager https://developer.microsoft.com/enus/graph/docs/overview/query_parameters

QUESTION 13

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q13

HOTSPOT
You are developing a single page application (SPA) named App1 that will be used by the public. Many users of App1
restrict pop-up windows from opening in their browser. You need to authenticate the users by using the Microsoft
identity platform. The solution must meet the following requirements:
*
Ensure that App1 can read the profile of a user.
*
Minimize user interaction during authentication.
*
Prevent App1 from requiring admin consent for any permissions.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4sureshop ms-600 exam questions-q13-2

Microsoft MS-600 Exam Video

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Latest MS-600 exam dumps PDF and practices exam questions. 100% accurate MS-600 answers.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Role-based
Exam Code: MS-600
Exam Name: Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services
Updated: Oct 15, 2020
Q&As: 100

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Why get Microsoft Role-based certification?

With Microsoft Role-based certification, you can prove that you are keeping up with today’s technical roles and needs. Improve your skills, prove your expertise to employers and colleagues, and gain the recognition and opportunities you have received.

What is Role-Based Access Control?

Azure role-based access control (Azure RBAC) is a system that provides fine-grained access management of Azure resources.

We may have confusion between two terms – Azure AD roles and Azure role-based access control in Azure.

Difference:

  1. Azure AD roles are used to manage access to Azure AD resources
  2. Azure roles are used to manage access to Azure resources.

How Does Azure RBAC work?

RBAC manages who can access Azure resources, what areas they can access, and what they can do with these resources. Azure RBAC allocation consists of three main components: defining scope, defining roles, and assigning security principals. For the first time using Azure RBAC, I recommend that you use the Azure portal, although it can also be configured through Azure PowerShell and Azure CLI.

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Role-based Exams

Pass4itsure provides you with the following practice questions related to Role-based exams.

AI-100 :Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution
177 Q&As Updated: Sep 06, 2020
AZ-104 :Microsoft Azure Administrator Exam
260 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
AZ-204 :Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Exam
158 Q&As Updated: Sep 09, 2020
AZ-303 :Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Exam
55 Q&As Updated: Sep 12, 2020
AZ-304 :Microsoft Azure Architect Design Exam
67 Q&As Updated: Sep 11, 2020
AZ-400 :Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions
235 Q&As Updated: Sep 09, 2020
AZ-500 :Microsoft Azure Security Technologies
203 Q&As Updated: Sep 07, 2020
DP-100 :Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure
218 Q&As Updated: Sep 11, 2020
DP-200 :Implementing an Azure Data Solution
207 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
DP-201 :Designing an Azure Data Solution
164 Q&As Updated: Sep 13, 2020
MB-200 :Microsoft Power Platform + Dynamics 365 Core
164 Q&As Updated: Sep 12, 2020
MB-210 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales
70 Q&As Updated: Sep 08, 2020
MB-220 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Marketing
60 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
MB-230 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Service
63 Q&As Updated: Sep 07, 2020
MB-240 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Exam
59 Q&As Updated: Sep 06, 2020
MB-300 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Core Finance and Operations
137 Q&As Updated: Sep 05, 2020
MB-310 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance
123 Q&As Updated: Sep 07, 2020
MB-320 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing
144 Q&As Updated: Sep 06, 2020
MB-330 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management
131 Q&As Updated: Sep 05, 2020
MB-400 :Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Developer
61 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
MB-500 :Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer
107 Q&As Updated: Sep 11, 2020
MB-600 :Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Solution Architect
56 Q&As Updated: Sep 11, 2020
MB-700 :Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect
80 Q&As Updated: Sep 05, 2020
MD-100 :Windows 10
202 Q&As Updated: Sep 09, 2020
MB-700 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect
80 Q&As Updated: Sep 05, 2020
MB-800 :Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant
60 Q&As Updated: Sep 13, 2020
MD-100 :Windows 10
202 Q&As Updated: Sep 09, 2020
MD-101 :Managing Modern Desktops
174 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
MS-100 :Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
267 Q&As Updated: Sep 08, 2020
MS-101 :Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
214 Q&As Updated: Sep 07, 2020
MS-203 :Microsoft 365 Messaging
65 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
MS-300 :Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork
157 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
MS-301 :Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
126 Q&As Updated: Sep 07, 2020
MS-500 :Microsoft 365 Security Administration
173 Q&As Updated: Sep 09, 2020
MS-600 :Building Applications and Solutions with Microsoft 365 Core Services
100 Q&As Updated: Sep 11, 2020
MS-700 :Managing Microsoft Teams
114 Q&As Updated: Sep 08, 2020
PL-100 :Microsoft Power Platform App Maker (beta)
65 Q&As Updated: Sep 10, 2020
PL-200 :Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant
60 Q&As Updated: Sep 12, 2020
PL-400 :Microsoft Power Platform Developer
60 Q&As Updated: Sep 12, 2020

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Guaranteed Full Microsoft Study Guide – Pass 70-410 PDF and Vce in the Latest Version

These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!

70-410 PDF

Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
Updated on: Feb 17, 2017
Exam Informationhttps://www.passitdump.com/70-410.html

Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers

70-410 PDF

  • Configure servers
  • Configure local storage

Configure server roles and features (15–20%)

  • Configure file and share access
  • Configure print and document services
  • Configure servers for remote management

Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)

  • Create and configure virtual machine settings
  • Create and configure virtual machine storage
  • reate and configure virtual networks

Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)

  • Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
  • Deploy and configure DNS service

Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)

  • Install domain controllers
  • Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
  • Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)

Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

  • Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
  • Configure security policies
  • Configure application restriction policies
  • Configure Windows Firewall

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?

70-410 PDF

A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

70-410 PDF: STUDY PLAN

70-410 PDF

Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.

Personally I’m going to stick together a personal rack at some point with the necessary 70-411 dumps hardware at home and I’m sure if you’re interested in becoming a Systems Specialist of any kind, the thought has crossed your mind as well.

Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.

The reason I chose to to pursue a track focusing on Server 2012 R2 is because it’s my favorite Microsoft server OS, mostly because I enjoy 70-411 vce.  At one point, I didn’t see much value in pursuing it any further. I still have the book, use it for reference at work because I still have a  70-411 pdf  system in production but all new servers I have deployed in the past 6 months.

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70-532 Dumps

Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
70-532 Dumps Tests Detail: Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Skills Measured

This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
C. IIS logs70-532 dumps
D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps

F. Application logs
Answer: D,E

NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B  400-101 vce

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

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