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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-489 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-32)

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers. Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site. What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.Document Management. DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.Document Management.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development. Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures. Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name. Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files. What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service. What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
070-489 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication for the external content type in the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally. The solution must use the SQL Server user named sqltrey to connect to the database.

QUESTION 11
You need to add code at line AJ05 to complete the implementation of the app. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 dumps Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 12
You need to create the external content type to support the data model. In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally

QUESTION 13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
070-489 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 14. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

QUESTION 15. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
070-489 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session D.
Transport
Answer: A

QUESTION 17. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
070-489 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 18. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

QUESTION 19. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D.LLC header
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 20. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION 21. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
070-489 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 22. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

QUESTION 23. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
070-489 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 24. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B.Transport
C.Network
D.Data Link
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is .
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
070-489 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C.A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. When inspecting frames from a capture, start with the Decode window.
A. Hex
B. Objects tab
C. Detail
D. Summary
070-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 28. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A

QUESTION 29. If you are baselining the time it takes to download a 2 MB file, which of the following display options would help you determine the total download time?.
A. Relative time
B. Status column
C. Delta time
D. Absolute time
070-489 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION 30. The Decode Summary window will
A. Display only Application layer protocols
B. Provide an overview of the captured frames
C. Only display legal size frames
D. Display runt or legal size frames but not oversize frames
Answer: B

QUESTION 31. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
070-489 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 32. The most common VLAN grouping technique is .
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D
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Exam Code: 070-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health. You verify the logs on several clients. You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points. You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in client health. Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.
070-243 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site. You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites. What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com. You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest. You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script. You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client computers in the litwareinc.com forest. What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
070-243 dumps Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 13
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site. You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings. What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. All client computers are configured as WSUS clients. All of the client computers have Windows Firewall enabled. Windows Firewall is configured to block Fie and Printer Sharing.
Users are not configured as local Administrators on their client computers. You deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. You need to identify which methods you can use to deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the
client computers. Which client installation methods should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. A logon script installation
B. A manual client installation
C. A software update-based client installation
D. A Client Push Installation
E. An Active Directory Group Policy-based installation
070-243 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain.
The functional level of the domain is Server 2003.
The domain contains the following servers:
Ten servers that run Windows Server 2003
Twenty servers that run Windows Server 2008
One server that has Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 installed

One server that has System Center 2012 Configuration Manager installed
Users have mobile devices that run Windows Mobile 6.5 and Windows Phone.
You need to ensure that you can manage the settings of the mobile devices and perform remote device wipes by using Configuration Manager.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010. Configure an Exchange connector.
B. Change the functional level of the domain to windows 2008. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010.
C. Upgrade all Windows 2003 domain controllers to Windows 2008.
D. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows 2008 R2. Configure an Exchange connector.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager. Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
070-243 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers. All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed. App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder. All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc. You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension. After six months, you discover that some of the client computers fail to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files. You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.
 You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data. The client computers report hardware inventory data. You confirm that Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers. You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue. Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log
070-243 exam Correct Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: 70-734
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Q&As: 46

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QUESTION NO: 64
The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the ___________ we are taking and is the basis for using sampling to estimate population parameters.
A. Analysis
B. Kurtosis
C. Risk
D. Route
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 65
Hypothesis Testing can help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 66
Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the hypothesis being solely due to chance. This is determined based on the result of the ______________.
A. Random acts
B. P-values
C. Standard Deviations
D. R-values
70-734 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
It is a Type I error if we reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 68
Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _______________ Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. Problematic
B. Impractical
C. Usable
D. Statistical
70-734 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 69
Having an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 are the most common risk levels when running a Statistical test.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-values are  measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?
A. Less than the Alpha level.
B. Greater than the Alpha level.
C. Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
D. Less than one minus Alpha.
E. Less than the power of one minus Beta.
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 71
A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a target value.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 72
A 1-Sample t-test is used to compare an expected population Mean to a target.
A. True
B. False
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
Unequal Variances can be the result of differing types of distributions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportation to work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees
showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?
A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than the other
D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse
70-734 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time using personal
transportation their variation should be reduced to ___________?
A. 1 minute
B. 6 minutes
C. 3.5 minutes
D. Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 76
According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be ____________?
A. Increase the average time of commute
B. Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
D. Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location
70-734 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?
A. t Test
B. F Test
C. Chi Square Test
D. Acid Test
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 78
Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).
A. When the traditional t tests don’t produce the results we need
B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
E. When there are no parameters to measure in the process
70-734 vce Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 70-243
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Updated: Aug 07, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 36
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment
contains a reporting services point.

A group of users is responsible for creating custom reports. The custom reports will be published.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tools should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Report Builder
B. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
C. Microsoft Access 2010
D. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
E. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
70-243 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 37
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You create a report
named Report1. Report1 is used by multiple users.
Users report that it takes too long to load Report1.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to load Report1.
What should you do?
A. Enable caching for the report.
B. Decrease the Size of the ReportServer database.
C. Decrease the session timeout value for the Reports website.
D. Increase the size of the ReportServerTempDB database.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You are creating a
configuration item that contains application settings for Microsoft Office 2010.
You need to detect whether Office 2010 is installed before validating the configuration item.
What should you do?
A. Create a report to display all installed software.
B. Enable Use a custom script to detect this application.
C. Create a direct membership collection.
D. Create an automatic deployment rule.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Two weeks ago, you deployed a Windows Installer package named App1.
You need to remediate a registry value that applies only to the client computers that have App1 installed.
The solution must minimize network traffic.
What should you do?
A. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then create a new
application for Appl.
B. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then configure the

existing application for App1 to use the new Windows Installer package.
C. Create an application-based configuration item, configure a rule for an existential type, and then import
the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.
D. Create an application-based configuration item, configure the detection method to use the Windows
Installer product code of App1, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has
App1 installed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor compliance.
The company has a configuration baseline for each server that has the Web Server (IIS) server rote
installed.
A new corporate policy specifies that the maximum TCP window size for all of the Web servers must be
131,072 bytes.
You discover that the TCP window size is set in the following registry entry:
HKEY_LOCAL_
MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\HTTP\Parameters\MaxBytesPerSend
You need to generate an error message for all of the Web servers that do NOT comply with the corporate
policy.
What should you do?
A. Add a new configuration item that has a registry value setting type to the configuration baseline.
B. Create a query-based collection that contains all of the Web servers, and then initiate an inventory
collection.
C. Create a query that returns a list of all the Web servers, and then search the query results for the
registry value.
D. Add a new configuration item that has an Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase setting type to
the configuration baseline.
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012
Configuration Manager deployed.
You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named WebCI
A configuration baseline named WebBaseline that contains WebCI
A collection named WebServers that contains all of the Web servers on the test network.
You export the configuration baseline to Baseline.cab.
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand
Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the Web servers on the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click WebBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
C. Right-click WebCI, select Export, and then specify Baseline.cab as the export file.
D. Right-click WebBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type WebServers in the
Filter… box.

E. Right-click WebBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the WebServers collection.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 42
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)

70-243 dumps

The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-243 dumps

You plan to deploy servers to the perimeter network by using Configuration Manager. The operating
system for each server will be instated over the network. The installations will begin automatically, as soon
as each server starts for the first time.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of network traffic between the perimeter
network and the internal network during the installation of the operating systems.
What should you do?
A. Install a software update point on Server3.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
C. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server6.
D. Install a management point on Servers.
E. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
F. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
G. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
H. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
I. Install a management point on Server2
  70-243 vce
70-243 dumps

QUESTION 43
What can cause bitmapped, banded, or low-quality display printed maps?
A. high output resolution
B. High Output Image Quality (OIQ)
C. transparent symbology
D. TrueType fonts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
An ArcGIS user is working with a CAD polyline feature class. It is comprised of a Feature_Type field
containing water main features and a RefName field, which may contain a valve type or may be NULL.
How can tins user build a query to isolate Water Main features containing a valid valve type?
A. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” <> `Null’
B. “Feature_Type” = Water Mains AND “RefName” NOT Null
C. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” IS NOT Null
D. “Feature_Type” = `Water Mains’ AND “RefName” <> IS Null
70-243 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
How does a geodatabase topology ensure data integrity and maintain the spatial relationships between
features?
A. specifies a valid set of topological values for an attribute
B. groups records in a feature class, based on an attribute field
C. validates the features of a geodatabase against a set of topology rules
D. enforces referential integrity between a feature class and a related feature class
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
An ArcGIS user wants to automate a process in ModelBuilder to determine the number of points that are
located in polygons.
Which tool should be used for this process?
A. Point Distance geoprocessing tool
B. Spatial Join geoprocessing tool
C. Select by Attributes ArcMap tool
D. Intersect Points geoprocessing tool
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Given a layer called Counties with the following relevant attributes:
What is the correct WHERE clause syntax for Select by attributes tool that should be used to find all the
Counties with a population greater than 50000 and less than 100000 in state of Florida in year 2008?

A. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND < 100000) AND “Countries.STATE_NAME” = `Florida’
B. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2000” < 100000) AND “Counties.STATE_NAME” =
`Florida’
C. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2008” < 100000 AND “Counties.STATE” `Florida’)
D. (“Counties.POP2008” > 50000 AND “Counties.POP2008” < 100000) AND “Counties.STATE_NAME” =
`Florida’
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which coordinate system is appropriate for storing a worldwide scale dataset using measures of latitude
and longitude, while also allowing for the data to be easily projected for editing and analysis at a local
level?
A. Universal Transverse Mercator
B. Geographic
C. Geocentric
D. Projected
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
An ArcGIS user performed a spatial transformation to adjust a less accurate Dataset A to match with a
more accurate Dataset B. The Spatial Transformation tool reported a low root mean square error (RMS).
What does this indicate?
A. The transformation between the control points is consistent
B. Too many control points were selected
C. The accuracy of Dataset A is high
D. The accuracy of the output transformed dataset is high
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50 An ArcGIS user is working in the field collecting elevation values along a hiking trail. What must be done
when creating the trail feature class to store the elevation values?
A. set the tolerance to greater than .001
B. add a field called Elevation and make the geometry type Double
C. assign the feature class a projected coordinate system in units of meters
D. make the feature class z-enabled
70-243 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
An ArcGIS user has a single long line that is intersected by many other lines. The user wants to split the
long line at each intersection.
Which tool allows the user to perform this in a single step?
A. Split
B. Planarize Lines
C. Line Intersection
D. Trim
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
When starting an edit session in ArcMap the ArcGIS user is unable to locate the geodatabase feature
class in the Start Editing list.
Why does the layer fail to show up in the Start Editing list?
A. The data layer is set as unselectable in the Table of Contents
B. The data loaded in the map is from a read-only source
C. The data is in a different spatial reference than the data frame
D. A spatial index must first be built for the data
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B

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There is nothing more challenging than finding an accurate answer for each and every question that is part of your Microsoft 70-695 dumps real test. Pass4itsure success in most recommended MCSE https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-695.html dumps exam questions certification with accurate answers on issuu.

Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Devices and Enterprise Apps
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 95

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Exam 70-696 dumps is about Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps.
The exams cover the following topics:

  • Deploy and manage virtual applications (14%)
  • Deploy and manage desktop and mobile applications (15%)
  • Plan and implement software updates (16%)
  • Manage compliance and endpoint protection settings (15%)
  • Manage Configuration Manager clients (15%)
  • Manage inventory using Configuration Manager (12%)
  • Provision and manage mobile devices (12%)

70-695 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-695 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
70-695 exam 
Answer: D
2.When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D
3.If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
70-695 dumps 
Answer: D
4.Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B
5.What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
70-695 pdf 
Answer: B
6.When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL

E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C
7.What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer’s shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
70-695 vce 
Answer: D
8.When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D
9.Sam uses Adaptive Payments’ Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
“guest payment” (“guest checkout”): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender’s email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer’s credit card information in his site/application.
70-695 exam 
Answer: B,C
10.When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant’s PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant’s account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D
11.When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
70-695 dumps 
Answer: A
12.When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D
13.You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
70-695 pdf 
Answer: E,F
14.What does “authorization” mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer’s credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer’s consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer’s credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C
15.Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender’s PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver’s account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender’s bank to clear it first.
70-695 vce 
Answer: A,D,E

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Guaranteed Full Microsoft Study Guide – Pass 70-410 PDF and Vce in the Latest Version

These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!

70-410 PDF

Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
Updated on: Feb 17, 2017
Exam Informationhttp://www.passitdump.com/70-410.html

 

Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers

70-410 PDF

  • Configure servers
  • Configure local storage

Configure server roles and features (15–20%)

  • Configure file and share access
  • Configure print and document services
  • Configure servers for remote management

Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)

  • Create and configure virtual machine settings
  • Create and configure virtual machine storage
  • reate and configure virtual networks

Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)

  • Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
  • Deploy and configure DNS service

Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)

  • Install domain controllers
  • Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
  • Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)

Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

  • Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
  • Configure security policies
  • Configure application restriction policies
  • Configure Windows Firewall

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?

70-410 PDF

A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

 

70-410 PDF: STUDY PLAN

70-410 PDF

Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.

Personally I’m going to stick together a personal rack at some point with the necessary 70-411 dumps hardware at home and I’m sure if you’re interested in becoming a Systems Specialist of any kind, the thought has crossed your mind as well.

Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.

The reason I chose to to pursue a track focusing on Server 2012 R2 is because it’s my favorite Microsoft server OS, mostly because I enjoy 70-411 vce.  At one point, I didn’t see much value in pursuing it any further. I still have the book, use it for reference at work because I still have a  70-411 pdf  system in production but all new servers I have deployed in the past 6 months.

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Most Reliable Guide on How to Pass the Microsoft 70-480 Exam

Microsoft certification 070-480 exam best training materials

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

NO.3 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D  200-101 dumps

 

NO.5 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

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QUESTION 27
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service
(VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
QUESTION 28
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect: Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T
Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 29
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference: 300-207 dumps
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.

Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 30
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

Incorrect: Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 31
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom
Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot
Configuration Data file is missing some required information.

File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE.
You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
*
Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.

*
Error code 0x0000034 while booting. Resolution:
1.
Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.

2.
Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.

3.
Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.

4.
Click Repair your computer.

5.
Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.

6.
In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.

7.
Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR
and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT
and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.

Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options
QUESTION 32
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is backed up by using Windows Server Backup. The backup configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
A. WEP is a moderately secure firewall for wireless devices.
B. WEP optimizes performance of 802.11 devices over distances, so they perform as well as their wired equivalents.
C. WEP represents the first attempt at designing an algorithm to protect wireless communication from eavesdropping.
D. WEP allows wireless access point administrators to require user names and passwords of users who want to connect to the wireless access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two (2) actions might a rootkit perform?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Monitor disk activity on the root volume.
B. Install security tools in root’s home directory.
C. Provide remote access to a computer by opening ports.
D. Hide its presence by installing modified versions of system commands
E. Provide a set of tools that allow the system administrator to monitor security events.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
________ is a command-line tool that displays the headers of packets seen by a computer’s network interface card.
A. arp
B. ping
C. netstat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
QUESTION 11
Which statement about SSH tunneling is FALSE?
A. SSH tunnels can support the PPP protocol.
B. SSH tunnels secure all IP traffic, including UDP and TCP.
C. SSH tunnels secure otherwise non-secure traffic, such as POP and AFP.
D. Forwarding port 1023 and below requires root privileges for the initial receiving port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Why might you prefer WPA Enterprise over WPA Personal?
A. You need 128-bit encryption.
B. You do not want to manage a RADIUS server.
C. You require more connections than WPA Personal allows
D. The security implications of WPA Personal’s shared key are not acceptable.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two (2) authentication mechanisms are available to SSH users?
(Choose TWO.)
A. public/private key pair
B. shared ssh_config files
C. user name and password
D. NTLM (NT LAN Manager)
E. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What does Stealth Mode on the Mac OS X Firewall do?
A. It disables the sending of denials to blocked packets.
B. It disables responses to all incoming connection attempts
C. It creates a NAT gateway to hide the true IP address of the computer.
D. It enables responses only to connection attempts from computers that are in the allowed computer list.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
If you see the password dialog shown above, which statement below MUST be true?
A. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry.
B. Mail needs to search a keychain for a relevant entry.
C. Mail is preparing to change the ACL for the keychain entry.
D. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry, but it was not accepted by the server.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two (2) steps to obtain a certificate from a third-party are essential for signing email?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Create a key pair.
B. Change the key size to 128 bits.
C. Store a key pair in your login keychain.
D. Generate a CSR (Certificate Signing Request).
E. Use Certificate Assistant to generate a CA (Certificate Authority).

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
The Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA) is ________.
A. a cryptographic services toolkit
B. a file system security infrastructure
C. a secure authentication method built into LDAP
D. a modular approach to networking and Internet services

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
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70-532 Dumps

Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
70-532 Dumps Tests Detail:Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Skills Measured

This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
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D. Event logs
E. Crash dumps

F. Application logs
Answer: D,E

 

NO.2 You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named
WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B  400-101 vce

 

NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT
You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Answer:

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

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