Cisco CCNA Routing & Switching 100-105 exam question 2020
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1?
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC
Correct Answer: BDF
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses in the same network?
Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP address. Which two addresses
are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate with other devices in the network? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC
The IP address of host B must be in the range of 192.168.10.32/28 subnet, which ranges from 192.168.10.32 to
192.168.10.47 (Increment: 16), except the IP addresses of 192.168.10.32, 192.168.10.46 (which are the network and
broadcast addresses of the subnet), 192.168.10.33, 192.168.10.34 (which have been assigned to the interface\\’s router
and the switch). Therefore, there are only two IP addresses of 192.168.10.38 and 192.168.10.46.
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D
IP Routing Table Entry Types
An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented:
Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class-based, subnet, or
supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route.
Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID.
Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop.
Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet.
Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same
destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the
Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes:
Directly Attached Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or
contain the IP address of the interface on that network.
Remote Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the
Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network.
A route to a specific IP address.
Host routes allow routing to occur on a per- IP address basis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the
specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255.
The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route
network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.
Which condition is most important to support the use of syslog messages for troubleshooting?
A. Messages are logged to a UNIX-based server.
B. The router has a large internal buffer space.
C. NTP is in use to ensure accurate timestamps.
D. Messages are logged to a Cisco UCS Server.
Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco CCNA Routing & Switching Change 2020
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate
Current CCNA Tracks before February 24th:
- CCNA Routing and Switching
- CCNA Cloud
- CCNA Collaboration
- CCNA Cyber Ops
- CCNA Data Center
- CCNA Industrial
- CCNA Security
- CCNA Service Provider
- CCNA Wireless
- CCDA Design
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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(21-38)
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 exam Correct Answer:
Refer to the exhibit.
After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, us
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
Correct Answer: B
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path
Refer to the exhibit.
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
Correct Answer: A
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D
If management expects 100 percent compliance with a procedure, which of the following sampling approaches would be most appropriate?
A. Attributes sampling.
B. Discovery sampling.
C. Targeted sampling.
D. Variables sampling.
Correct Answer: B
An internal auditor is discussing an audit problem with an engagement client. While listening to the client, the internal auditor should:
A. Prepare a response to the client.
B. Take mental notes on the speaker’s nonverbal communication, as it is more important than what is being said.
C. Make sure that all details, as well as the main ideas of the client, are remembered.
D. Integrate the incoming information from the client with information that is already known.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
An auditor is using an internal control questionnaire as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following is the best reason for the auditor to interview management regarding the questionnaire responses?
A. Interviews provide the opportunity to insert questions to probe promising areas.
B. Interviews are the most efficient way to upgrade the information to the level of objective evidence.
C. Interviewing is the least costly audit technique when a large amount of information is involved.
D. Interviewing is the only audit procedure which does not require confirmation of the information that is obtained.
Correct Answer: A
Many questionnaires are made up of a series of different questions that use the same response categories (for example: strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree). Some designs will have different groups of respondents answer alternate versions of the questionnaire that present the questions in different orders and reverse the orientation of the endpoints of the scale (for example: agree on the right and disagree on the left). The purpose of such questionnaire variations is to:
A. Eliminate intentional misrepresentations.
B. Reduce the effects of pattern response tendencies.
C. Test whether respondents are reading the questionnaire.
D. Make it possible to get information about more than one population parameter using the same questions.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
An auditor used a questionnaire during an interview to gather information about the nature of credit sales processing. The questionnaire did not cover some pertinent information offered by the person being interviewed, and the auditor did not document the potential problems for further investigation. The primary deficiency with the above process is that:
A. The auditor failed to consider the importance of the information offered.
B. A questionnaire was used in a situation where a structured interview should have been used.
C. Using a questionnaire precludes the auditor from documenting other information.
D. The engagement program was incomplete.
Correct Answer: A
The use of standard operating procedure questionnaires in audit fieldwork can be beneficial because.
A. These questionnaires can both identify discrepancies and educate clients.
B. Standard operating procedures are essential to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations.
C. These questionnaires are more comprehensive than are other types of techniques for gathering data during fieldwork.
D. These questionnaires do not normally require prior clearance with management of the audited area.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Checklists used to assess audit risk have been criticized for all of the following reasons except:
A. Providing a false sense of security that all relevant factors are addressed.
B. Inappropriately implying equal weight to each item on the checklist.
C. Decreasing the uniformity of data acquisition.
D. Being incapable of translating the experience or sound reasoning intended to be captured by each item
on the checklist.
Correct Answer: C
A limitation of using ratio analysis in an audit engagement is that it:
A. Often uses financial information provided by management which has not been reviewed for reliability and validity.
B. Is an expensive method of testing.
C. Requires computer software in order to develop meaningful interpretations of data.
D. Is useful only when comparisons can be made across other industries.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Ben is the project manager of the NHF Project for his organization. Some delays early in the project have caused the project schedule to slip by nearly 15 percent. Management would like Ben to find a method to recoup the schedule slippage and to get the project back on track. Management is risk- adverse with this project. Which of the following methods should Ben avoid to recoup the project time?
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Adding lead time
Correct Answer: B
Of all the choices, Ben should avoid fast tracking, as it allows complete phases of the project to overlap, and this increases project risks. Management wants to avoid risks, so fast tracking would not be helpful. Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope.
Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing adds people and costs but is relatively safe in regard to risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Critical chain is not a schedule compression technique and would not necessarily help the project get back on schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. Lead time, similar to fast tracking, can increase project risks; however, fast tracking is more risky than lead time. Lead time allows individual activities to overlap, while fast tracking allows entire project phases to overlap.
Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to create a report on her project’s performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?
A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index
B. Scope baseline
C. Performance measurement baseline
D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report. Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the scope, whereas
performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation. Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule performance. Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.
Which of the following documents captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and a timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer?
A. Project charter
B. Scope of statement
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document. Answer option B is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project. Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.
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