We Practice The 2016 Latest Microsoft 70-417 Exam Questions And Answers

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070-410 exam

QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC5. DC5 has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall Active Directory from DC5 manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-ADComputercmdlet
B. The ntdsutil.exe command
C. The dsamain.exe command
D. The Remove-WindowsFeaturecmdlet

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?

A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon service creates a log file that contains all the locator resource records and places the log file in
the following location:

References:
QUESTION 98
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. New-VirtualDisk
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NOT A Share and Storage will only let you create a VHD on a storage pool NOT B Server Manager, can’t
find where to create this. NOT C Is this powershell ? the command should be NEW-VHD

D Computer management is the only valid yet non available answer. I’d be left with C, hoping they’d have
the good powershell command.
Note:
From @L_Ranger, Computer Management is not an option anymore.
Back to New-VirtualDisk
Old explanation : D (Computer management)
Explanation:
For Server 2012:
With the  Server Manager snap-in, you can create and attach a .VHD file directly. Figure A shows the drop-down box
where a.VHD file can be created and attached. Figure A
QUESTION 99
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are part of a workgroup.

On Server1 and Server2, you create a local user account named Admin1. You add the account to the local
Administrators group. On both servers, Admin1 has the same password.

You log on to Server1 as Admin1. You open Computer Management and you connect to Server2.

When you attempt to create a scheduled task, view the event logs, and manage the shared folders, you
receive Access Denied messages.
You need to ensure that you can administer Server2 remotely from Server1 by using Computer
Management. What should you configure on Server2?

A. From Local Users and Groups, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
B. From Server Manager, modify the Remote Management setting.
C. From Windows Firewall, modify the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) firewall rule.
D. From Registry Editor, configure the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicyresgistry value

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Server2, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You join Server2 to the contoso.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 by using the Computer Management console on Server1.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Run sconfig.exe and configure remote management.
B. Run sconfig.exe and configure Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install Windows Management Framework.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Windows Server 2012, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.
References:
QUESTION 101
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 5erver2 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1) and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You need to manage DHCP on Server2 by using the DHCP console on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. From the Microsoft Management Console on Server1, add a snap-in.
B. From Server Manager on Server2, enable Windows Remote Management.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server2, run Enable-PSRemoting.
D. From Server Manager on Server1, install a feature.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization

Correct Answer: G Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting from the network is first.
References:  Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter
7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335
QUESTION 103
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and corp.contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are configured as global catalog servers.
The corp.contoso.com domain contains a domain controller named DC1.
You need to disable the global catalog on DC1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
B. From Active Directory Administrative Center, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the properties of the corp.contoso.com domain.
D. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings of the DC1 server object.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When you navigate your way to the Active Directory Sites and Services\Sites\SiteName\Servers then in the details pane, right-click NTDS Settings of the selected server object, and then click Properties. There will you get access to the Global Catalog check box to add the global catalog, or clear the check box to remove the global catalog.
References:

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 070-489 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-32)

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers. Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site. What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.Document Management. DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.Document Management.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development. Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures. Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name. Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files. What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service. What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
070-489 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
70-489 exam Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication for the external content type in the production environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally. The solution must use the SQL Server user named sultry to connect to the database.

QUESTION 11
You need to add code at line AJ05 to complete the implementation of the app. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
070-489 dumps Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 12
You need to create an external content type to support the data model. In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
You must create an external content type named TreyResearch to access the SQL data source. During development, the data source will be accessible locally

QUESTION 13. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
070-489 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 14. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

QUESTION 15. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
070-489 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 16. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session D.
Transport
Answer: A

QUESTION 17. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
070-489 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 18. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

QUESTION 19. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D.LLC header
70-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 20. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION 21. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
070-489 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 22. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

QUESTION 23. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Station Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Network
070-489 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 24. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Connection Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Session
B.Transport
C.Network
D.Data Link
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is .
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
070-489 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data added to the content of the frame, typically caused by a hardware fault
C.A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. When inspecting frames from a capture, start with the Decode window.
A. Hex
B. Objects tab
C. Detail
D. Summary
70-489 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 28. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A

QUESTION 29. If you are baselining the time it takes to download a 2 MB file, which of the following display options would help you determine the total download time?.
A. Relative time
B. Status column
C. Delta time
D. Absolute time
070-489 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION 30. The Decode Summary window will
A. Display only Application layer protocols
B. Provide an overview of the captured frames
C. Only display legal size frames
D. Display runt or legal size frames but not oversize frames
Answer: B

QUESTION 31. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) .
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
070-489 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 32. The most common VLAN grouping technique is .
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D
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Cisco CCNA Routing & Switching 100-105 exam question 2020

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1?
(Choose three.)pass4itsure 100-105 question q1

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in
the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC
address.
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 2
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses in the same network?
A. ICMP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP address. Which two addresses
are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate with other devices in the network? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 100-105 question q3

A. 192.168.10.32
B. 192.168.10.38
C. 192.168.10.46
D. 192.168.10.47
E. 192.168.10.49
F. 192.168.10.51
Correct Answer: BC
The IP address of host B must be in the range of 192.168.10.32/28 subnet, which ranges from 192.168.10.32 to
192.168.10.47 (Increment: 16), except the IP addresses of 192.168.10.32, 192.168.10.46 (which are the network and
broadcast addresses of the subnet), 192.168.10.33, 192.168.10.34 (which have been assigned to the interface\\’s router
and the switch). Therefore, there are only two IP addresses of 192.168.10.38 and 192.168.10.46.


QUESTION 4
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D
IP Routing Table Entry Types
An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented:
Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class-based, subnet, or
supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route.
Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID.
Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop.
Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet.
Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same
destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the
network
ID.
Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes:
Directly Attached Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or
contain the IP address of the interface on that network.
Remote Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the
Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network.
Host Routes.
A route to a specific IP address.
Host routes allow routing to occur on a per- IP address basis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the
specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255.
Default Route.
The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route
network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.


QUESTION 5
Which condition is most important to support the use of syslog messages for troubleshooting?
A. Messages are logged to a UNIX-based server.
B. The router has a large internal buffer space.
C. NTP is in use to ensure accurate timestamps.
D. Messages are logged to a Cisco UCS Server.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 100-105 question q6

Cisco CCNA Routing & Switching Change 2020

CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate

Current CCNA Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Cyber Ops
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA Design

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Latest and Most Accurate Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(21-38)

QUESTION 21
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:

100-105 dumps

100-105 exam Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

The IP address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0 specifies that the address is part of the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet 24 mask bits = 255.255.255.0 28 mask bits = 255.255.255.240 192.168.1.0/24 subnet has

QUESTION 23
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, us

QUESTION 24
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.

QUESTION 25
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set

D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path 

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

QUESTION 27
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
If management expects 100 percent compliance with a procedure, which of the following sampling approaches would be most appropriate?
A. Attributes sampling.
B. Discovery sampling.
C. Targeted sampling.
D. Variables sampling.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditor is discussing an audit problem with an engagement client. While listening to the client, the internal auditor should:
A. Prepare a response to the client.
B. Take mental notes on the speaker’s nonverbal communication, as it is more important than what is being said.
C. Make sure that all details, as well as the main ideas of the client, are remembered.
D. Integrate the incoming information from the client with information that is already known.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
An auditor is using an internal control questionnaire as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following is the best reason for the auditor to interview management regarding the questionnaire responses?
A. Interviews provide the opportunity to insert questions to probe promising areas.
B. Interviews are the most efficient way to upgrade the information to the level of objective evidence.
C. Interviewing is the least costly audit technique when a large amount of information is involved.
D. Interviewing is the only audit procedure which does not require confirmation of the information that is obtained.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Many questionnaires are made up of a series of different questions that use the same response categories (for example: strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree). Some designs will have different groups of respondents answer alternate versions of the questionnaire that present the questions in different orders and reverse the orientation of the endpoints of the scale (for example: agree on the right and disagree on the left). The purpose of such questionnaire variations is to:
A. Eliminate intentional misrepresentations.

B. Reduce the effects of pattern response tendencies.
C. Test whether respondents are reading the questionnaire.
D. Make it possible to get information about more than one population parameter using the same questions.
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
An auditor used a questionnaire during an interview to gather information about the nature of credit sales processing. The questionnaire did not cover some pertinent information offered by the person being interviewed, and the auditor did not document the potential problems for further investigation. The primary deficiency with the above process is that:
A. The auditor failed to consider the importance of the information offered.
B. A questionnaire was used in a situation where a structured interview should have been used.
C. Using a questionnaire precludes the auditor from documenting other information.
D. The engagement program was incomplete.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The use of standard operating procedure questionnaires in audit fieldwork can be beneficial because.
A. These questionnaires can both identify discrepancies and educate clients.
B. Standard operating procedures are essential to the effectiveness and efficiency of operations.
C. These questionnaires are more comprehensive than are other types of techniques for gathering data during fieldwork.
D. These questionnaires do not normally require prior clearance with management of the audited area.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Checklists used to assess audit risk have been criticized for all of the following reasons except:
A. Providing a false sense of security that all relevant factors are addressed.
B. Inappropriately implying equal weight to each item on the checklist.
C. Decreasing the uniformity of data acquisition.
D. Being incapable of translating the experience or sound reasoning intended to be captured by each item
on the checklist.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
A limitation of using ratio analysis in an audit engagement is that it:
A. Often uses financial information provided by management which has not been reviewed for reliability and validity.
B. Is an expensive method of testing.
C. Requires computer software in order to develop meaningful interpretations of data.
D. Is useful only when comparisons can be made across other industries.
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Ben is the project manager of the NHF Project for his organization. Some delays early in the project have caused the project schedule to slip by nearly 15 percent. Management would like Ben to find a method to recoup the schedule slippage and to get the project back on track. Management is risk- adverse with this project. Which of the following methods should Ben avoid to recoup the project time?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain methodology
D. Adding lead time
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, Ben should avoid fast tracking, as it allows complete phases of the project to overlap, and this increases project risks. Management wants to avoid risks, so fast tracking would not be helpful. Fast tracking is a technique for compressing project schedule. In fast tracking, phases are overlapped that would normally be done in sequence. It is shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope.
Answer option A is incorrect. Crashing adds people and costs but is relatively safe in regard to risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Critical chain is not a schedule compression technique and would not
  necessarily help the project get back on schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. Lead time, similar to fast tracking, can increase project risks; however, fast tracking is more risky than lead time. Lead time allows individual activities to overlap, while fast tracking allows entire project phases to overlap.

QUESTION 37
Laura is the project manager for her organization and management has requested her to create a report on her project’s performance. Laura needs to analyze her current project performance and then compare it against what, in order to create a performance report?
A. Cost variances and Cost Performance Index
B. Scope baseline
C. Performance measurement baseline
D. Schedule variances, planned value, and the Schedule Performance Index
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The performance measurement baseline, which can be comprised of cost, scope, and schedule, is the foundation for creating a performance report. Answer option B is incorrect. The scope baseline will only reflect the performance of the scope, whereas
performance reports typically need scope, time, and cost as its foundation. Answer option A is incorrect. Cost variances and the cost performance index are cost values that must be considered along with the scope performance and schedule performance. Answer option D is incorrect. Only reporting performance on the schedule is not enough for a performance report. Laura should also report on scope and cost at a minimum.

QUESTION 38
Which of the following documents captures and defines the work activities, deliverables, and a timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer?
A. Project charter
B. Scope of statement
C. SOW
D. WBS
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that captures and defines the work activities, deliverables and timeline that a vendor will execute against in performance of work for a customer. Detailed requirements and pricing are usually specified in it, along with many other terms and conditions. SOW is a narrative description of products or services to be supplied by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the statement of work can be received from the customer as part of a bid document. Answer option B is incorrect. Scope of statement gives the narrative description of the project scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project manager to work on a project. Answer option D is incorrect. WBS is a tool that defines a project and groups the project discrete work in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope.

100-105 dumps

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How can I pass the Microsoft AZ-300 Exam in 2020 with easy method?

Pass the Microsoft AZ-300 exam by following these steps. You can pass the test in a simple way.

  1. Read the official Microsoft AZ-300 exam information
  2. Studying AZ-300 Exam Topics
  3. Practice Online AZ-300 Dumps

AZ-300 Dumps,AZ-300 Practice Exams Questions https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-300.html(Feb 15, 2020)you can pass AZ-300 exam in an easy way.

Azure Solutions Architect Expert:Microsoft AZ-300 exam

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-300

! You will be able to take this exam until it retires on July 28, 2020.

  • Deploy and configure infrastructure (40-45%)
  • Implement workloads and security (25-30%)
  • Create and deploy apps (5-10%)
  • Implement authentication and secure data (5-10%)
  • Develop for the cloud and for Azure storage (15-20%)

A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-303

You may also be interested in other Microsoft exams.

Latest Microsoft AZ-300 Practice Test Online

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q1-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-3
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to deploy an Azure load balancer named ib1016 to your Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Support the load balancing of IP traffic from the Internet to Azure virtual machines connected to VNET1016\subnet0.
Provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99,99 percent availability for the Azure virtual machines.
Minimize Azure-related costs.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
To complete this task, you do NOT need to wait for the deployment to complete. Once the deployment starts in Azure,
you can move to the next task.
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the connectivity between the virtual machines after the planned implementation of the Azure
networking infrastructure.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q2-2

Once the VNets are peered, all resources on one VNet can communicate with resources on the other peered VNets.
You plan to enable peering between Paris-VNet and AllOffices-VNet. Therefore VMs on Subnet1, which is on ParisVNet and VMs on Subnet3, which is on AllOffices-VNet will be able to connect to each other.
All Azure resources connected to a VNet have outbound connectivity to the Internet by default. Therefore VMs on
ClientSubnet, which is on ClientResources-VNet will have access to the Internet; and VMs on Subnet3 and Subnet4,
which are on AllOffices-VNet will have access to the Internet.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/networking/networking-overview#internet-connectivity

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contosodoud.onmicrosoft.com.
Your company has a public DNS zone for contoso.com.
You add contoso.com as a custom domain name to Azure AD
You need to ensure that Azure can verify the domain name.
Which type of DNS record should you create?
A. PTR
B. TXT
C. NSEC3
D. DNSKEY
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Backup data to local disks and use the Azure Import/Export service to send backups to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5

In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The
adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q5-3

Box 1: No
Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private
zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though.
Box 2: No
Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual
networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network.
Box 3: Yes
VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone.
By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against
the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of
10.0.0.0/16 and contains the subnets in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6

Subnet1 contains a virtual appliance named VM1 that operates as a router.
You create a routing table named RT1.
You need to route all inbound traffic to VNet1 through VM1.
How should you configure RT1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q6-3

QUESTION 7
You are developing a web app that uses a REST interface to connect to Azure Storage with HTTPS. This app uploads
and streams video content that can be accessed from anywhere in the world.
You have different storage requirements for each part of the app. A hierarchical namespace must be created.
Which storage services should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate services to the correct actions. Each
service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment.
While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and
paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to host several secured websites on Web01.
You need to allow HTTPS over TCP port 443 to Web01 and to prevent HTTP over TCP port 80 to Web01.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer: See below.
You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A
network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from,
several types of Azure resources.
A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from, several types of Azure resources.
A2. Select Create.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-4

Step A: Create a network security group
A1. Search for and select the resource group for the VM, choose Add, then search for and select Network security
group.
The Create network security group window opens.
A3. Create a network security group
Enter a name for your network security group.
Select or create a resource group, then select a location.
A4. Select Create to create the network security group.
Step B: Create an inbound security rule to allows HTTPS over TCP port 443
B1. Select your new network security group.
B2. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B3. Add inbound rule
B4. Select Advanced.
From the drop-down menu, select HTTPS.
You can also verify by clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 443.
B5. Select Add to create the rule.
Repeat step B2-B5 to deny TCP port 80
B6. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B7. Add inbound rule
B8. Select Advanced.
Clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 80.
B9. Select Deny.
Step C: Associate your network security group with a subnet
Your final step is to associate your network security group with a subnet or a specific network interface.
C1. In the Search resources, services, and docs box at the top of the portal, begin typing Web01. When the Web01 VM
appears in the search results, select it.
C2. Under SETTINGS, select Networking. Select Configure the application security groups, select the Security Group
you created in Step A, and then select Save, as shown in the following picture:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q8-5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-filter-network-traffic

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the connection requirements for the New York office.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-2

Box 1: Create a virtual network gateway and a local network gateway.
Azure VPN gateway. The VPN gateway service enables you to connect the VNet to the on-premises network through a
VPN appliance. For more information, see Connect an on-premises network to a Microsoft Azure virtual network. The
VPN gateway includes the following elements:
Virtual network gateway. A resource that provides a virtual VPN appliance for the VNet. It is responsible for routing
traffic from the on-premises network to the VNet.
Local network gateway. An abstraction of the on-premises VPN appliance. Network traffic from the cloud application to
the on-premises network is routed through this gateway.
Connection. The connection has properties that specify the connection type (IPSec) and the key shared with the onpremises VPN appliance to encrypt traffic.
Gateway subnet. The virtual network gateway is held in its own subnet, which is subject to various requirements,described in the Recommendations section below.
Box 2: Configure a site-to-site VPN connection
On premises create a site-to-site connection for the virtual network gateway and the local network gateway.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q9-3

Scenario: Connect the New York office to VNet1 over the Internet by using an encrypted connection.
Incorrect Answers:
Azure ExpressRoute: Established between your network and Azure, through an ExpressRoute partner. This connection
is private. Traffic does not go over the internet.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/vpn

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10-2

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q10-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to create 100 Azure virtual machines on each of the following three virtual networks:
-VNET1005a
-VNET1005b
-VNET1005c All the network traffic between the three virtual networks will be routed through VNET1005a. You need to
create the virtual networks, and then to ensure that all the Azure virtual machines can connect to other virtual machines
by using their private IP address. The solutions must NOT require any virtual gateways and must minimize
the number of peerings.
What should you do from the Azure portal before you configuring IP routing?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits.
How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct
locations. Each Configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-300 exam questions q11-2

Azure compute services, namely virtual machines (IaaS) and cloud services (PaaS), that are deployed within a virtual
network can be connected through the private peering domain. The private peering domain is considered to be a trusted
extension of your core network into Microsoft Azure.
Services such as Azure Storage, SQL databases, and Websites are offered on public IP addresses. You can privately
connect to services hosted on public IP addresses, including VIPs of your cloud services, through the public peering
routing domain. You can connect the public peering domain to your DMZ and connect to all Azure services on their
public IP addresses from your WAN without having to connect through the internet.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-circuit-peerings

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share.
Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter
image.
You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components
installed.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upload a configuration script.
B. Create an automation account.
C. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
D. Create an Azure policy.
E. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
Correct Answer: CE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template

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MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
  • Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
  • Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
  • Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

Other Microsoft exams you might be interested in.

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals – importance

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals certification is necessary to get all the fundamental knowledge of Dynamics 365. If you have the certification of Dynamics 365 Fundamentals then your way of earning the further certifications at the associate and expert level of Dynamics 365 will become much easier. Dynamics 365 Fundamentals clears your elementary concepts of Dynamics 365.

Microsoft MB-900 exam questions,latest and accurate practice test

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing
cases and knowledge articles.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You need to use the appropriate applications to meet requirements.
Which applications should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate applications to the correct requirements. Each
application may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You operate a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement environment.
You need to determine the security types used to secure different resources.
Which security type is used for each capability? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Match each application to its Dynamics 365 licensing plan.
To answer, drag the appropriate licensing plan from the column on left to its application on the right. Each licensing plan
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
You need to identify the benefits of Microsoft Azure cloud-based installations. What are two benefits? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. disaster recovery planning
B. ability to easily scale for increased growth
C. business continuity
D. ability to adhere to static cost requirements
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
A company is preparing to implement a cloud-based environment.
You need to inform management about the different types of cloud.
Which three service components are available for infrastructure as a service (IaaS)? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. network security
B. operating systems
C. data center
D. servers and storage
E. hosted applications
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator integrating Microsoft SharePoint on-premises and Dynamics 365 Customer
Engagement in the cloud. Which technology should you use for this type of integration?
A. private cloud
B. software as a service (SaaS)
C. public cloud
D. hybrid cloud
E. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You need to choose the appropriate type of Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement solution for each scenario.
Which solution types should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct scenarios. Each
solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft Azure services are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Active Directory
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Azure Machine Learning
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Microsoft Power BI
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
You run Dynamics 365 and line-of-business applications on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. Due
to compliance regulations, Dynamic 365 Finance and Operations data must remain on-premises. You migrate all
managed solutions and Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement data to Dynamics 365 in the cloud.
You need to determine which cloud service deployment model is being used.
Which type of cloud service model is being used?
A. Microsoft Azure Virtual Machine deployment
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. hybrid deployment
D. software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are determining whether to deploy Dynamics 365 for Retail or Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to identify the capabilities of each application.
Which capabilities does each application support? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/de-de/dynamics365/unified-operations/retail/dev-itpro/choose-deployment

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Match each response time to its level for Dynamics 365. To answer, drag the appropriate level from the column on the
lest to its response time on the right. Each level may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You operate a Dynamics 365 online environment.
You need to determine the appropriate release type for different audiences and supportability.
Which release types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MB-900 exam questions-q13-2

Refer to the following resources to pass the MB-900 exam:

In addition to the MB-900 exam questions, you should also refer to the following resources to pass the MB-900 exam:

  1. Visit the official exam website of MB-900.
  2. Ask a Microsoft instructor-led learning course.
  3. Avail the facility of Microsoft Learning.
  4. Participate in a community discussion about Dynamics 365 Basic Certification.
  5. Video learning

Visit the official exam website: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-900

Ask a Microsoft instructor-led learning course: https://query.prod.cms.rt.microsoft.com/cms/api/am/binary/RWtQJJ

Avail the facility of Microsoft Learning: https://www.learningtree.co.uk/courses/8543/dynamics-365-fundamentals-mb-900/

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EMC exam certification information

Specialist – Systems Administrator, VxRail Appliance Exam: https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/DES-6332_Specialist-Systems_Administrator_VxRail_Appliance_Exam.pdf

EMC Other Certification DES-6332 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
How is the VMware HCIA Management role associated with a user in vCenter after the VxRail system has been
deployed?
A. Assign the role directly to the user at the object level
B. Add user to HCIA Management group
C. Import the role to the user from VxRail Manager
D. User is automatically added to the role when created
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The VxRail administrator has been given the task of migrating the current production environment to a VxRail cluster
with external block storage. The VMs must remain online during the migration.
Which VMware feature can be used?
A. Storage vMotion
B. vMotion
C. VMware Converter Software
D. High Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Use of what network configuration is considered a best practice for VxRail clusters?
A. Traffic segmentation with VLANs
B. Available Production Ports
C. Available Management Ports
D. IPv6 Multicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which VxRail model is a 1U form factor per node?
A. E Series
B. P Series
C. S Series
D. G Series
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A VxRail is experiencing issues The administrator decides to contact Dell EMC Support.
Where in VxRail Manager can the administrator generate information needed for the support call?
A. Config > Generate Support Bundle
B. Health > General > Generate Support Bundle
C. Support > Generate New Log Bundle
D. Config > General > Generate New Log Bundle
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
In a VxRail appliance, what does vSAN use in the form of flexible data containers to store and manage data?
A. Datastores
B. nodes
C. Objects
D. Logical volumes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A VxRail administrator wants to search for VxRail related knowledge base articles through the VxRail Manager user
interface.
Which action must the administrator perform to use this feature?
A. Register for a VxRail Community login and set the credentials in VxRail Manager
B. Work with Dell EMC to register the VxRail appliance in the Install Database
C. Set the Dell EMC Support username and password in VxRail Manager
D. Configure proxy settings in VxRail Manager for access to the Internet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is a consideration when choosing between vSphere Encryption and vSAN Encryption?
A. vSphere Encryption applies to the entire vSAN datastore vSAN Encryption is on a per VM basis
B. vSphere Encryption does not support deduplication and compression vSAN Encryption allows deduplication and
compression
C. vSphere Encryption addresses fears of media theft vSAN Encryption addresses fears of a rogue admin
D. vSphere Encryption is for data-at-rest vSAN Encryption is for data-in-flight
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which level of data protection can be configured across sites in a VxRail Stretched Cluster?
A. RAID1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1/0
D. RAID 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which user interface provides remote power control (power on and power off) for VxRail E Series nodes?
A. VxRail Manager
B. IPMI/BMC
C. iDRAC
D. VMware vSphere Web Client
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
There is a request to add two new disks to an existing VM residing on a VxRail vSAN that you manage One disk is 250
GB and the other is 500 GB The VM is using the vSAN default storage policy. How many vSAN objects will be created?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which VMware feature will restart the VM on a different host when the original host fails?
A. High Availability
B. vMotion
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. Fault Tolerance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user of VxRail Manager wants to investigate Storage IOPS for a node.
Which tab should they use1?
A. Health > Physical > Node
B. Health > Physical > Cluster
C. Health > Logical > Cluster
D. Health > Logical > Node
Correct Answer: C

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EMC exam certification information

Specialist –Technology Architect, Data Protection Version 1.0: https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/DES-3611_Specialist-Technology_Architect_Data_Protection_Exam.PDF

EMC Other Certification DES-3611 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A company\\’s environment consists of two data centers with a single Dell EMC XtremIO array. The company has
indicated that they need the ability to provide disaster recovery protection. Which RecoverPoint license will provide this
capability while minimizing cost?
A. RecoverPoint/CL on both clusters
B. ReocverPoint/CL on the Production cluster only
C. RecoverPoint/SE on both clusters
D. RecoverPoint/SE on the Production cluster only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, which Application Direct agent supports Oracle 10gR2?
A. Microsoft Application Agent
B. Database Application Agent
C. Oracle RMAN Agent
D. Oracle Database Agent
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/white-papers/h10683-dd-boost-oracle-rman-tech-review-wp.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which Microsoft technologies are used to provide database consistent backups for MS SQL with Dell EMC DPS
Application Direct?
A. SSMS and T-SQL
B. VSS and VDI
C. VSS and SSMS
D. VDI and SSMS
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu91897.pdf

QUESTION 4
A customer is currently running VMs in two public cloud providers. As part of their overall data protection strategy, they
are interested in adding Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager to their portfolio. How many subscriptions does the
customer need to purchase to protect their VMs in both public cloud accounts?
A. One subscription per public cloud
B. One subscription, per year, for the number or capacity of VMs
C. One subscription for the cumulative number of all VMs
D. One subscription for the cumulative capacity of all VMs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In the Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, what is a key benefit of Storage Direct Backup?
A. 10x faster recovery
B. 10x faster backup
C. Backup does not require a Data Domain
D. Support for a wide range of third-party storage arrays
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.bigstorageworks.com/Data-Protection-Suite-for-backup.asp

QUESTION 6
In a Dell EMC RecoverPoint environment, which Consistency Group setting will help prevent application throttling for
synchronous replication?
A. Snapshot Granularity
B. Dynamic by Latency
C. Deduplication
D. Compression
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A company plans to integrate a Dell EMC IDPA DP4400 with two 4-port network cards in a Cisco switch infrastructure.
Which connection type is supported for backup and management?
A. 10 GbE with SFP+ optics attached
B. Copper Twinax up to 7m
C. 10 GbE SFP+ optical with LC-LC
D. 10BaseT with RJ45 Cat6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8pass4itsure des-6311 exam question q8

Based on the exhibit, which Dell EMC Isolated Recovery Solution component includes compute and a hardened Data
Domain?
A. Backup Application Host
B. Management Host
C. Recovery Test Hosts
D. Vault Compute
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Based on which protection plan does Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager use to help take snapshots in an Amazon
Web Services cloud environment?
A. Tags
B. Time
C. Date
D. Volume
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A customer has 6,000 desktops and laptops with 1 TB of data, an average backup time of 10 minutes each, and 10 TB
of database data. The customer wants a solution that addresses the following requirements:
Deduplication in the shortest backup window with the fewest components Least performance impact on the database
servers
Which Dell EMC solution is recommended?
A. One Avamar 7.8 TB 3-node server integrated with a Data Domain system
B. Two Avamar 2.0 TB 5-node servers integrated with a Data Domain system
C. NetWorker with multiple deduplication nodes
D. NetWorker with integrated deduplication nodes and a Data Domain system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the expected compression rate for protection operations with Dell EMC Data Domain Cloud DR before sending
data to the cloud?
A. 45%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 65%
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.informationwatch.net/collateral/faq/data-domain-dd3300.pdf

QUESTION 12
You are designing cloud protection for a customer who is using Dell EMC Cloud Snapshot Manager. Which Microsoft
Azure resource is supported with Snapshot Management?
A. Relational Database Service
B. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Managed Virtual Machine
D. Elastic Block Store
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A customer wants to use 40 GbE breakout uplinks in a Dell EMC Integrated Data Protection Appliance (IDPA) factory-
configured ToR switch. Which customer environment needs to exist to make use of this uplink option?
A. IDPA ToR switch needs to be connected to a Cisco switch
B. Customer switch needs to have 16 unused Twinax or SFP+ optical ports
C. IDPA ToR switch needs to be connected to a Dell switch
D. SFTP+ transceivers and breakout cables need to be provided by the switch vendor
Correct Answer: C

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-767: Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-767.aspx
This exam is intended for extract, transform, and load (ETL) and data warehouse developers who create business intelligence (BI) solutions.
Their responsibilities include data cleansing, in addition to ETL and data warehouse implementation.

pass4itsure 70-767 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Design, implement and maintain a data warehouse (35–40%)
  • Extract, transform and load data (40–45%)
  • Build data quality solutions (15–20%)

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-767 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You configure a new matching policy Master Data Services (MDS) as shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q1

You review the Matching Results of the policy and find that the number of new values matches the new values.
You verify that the data contains multiple records that have similar address values, and you expect some of the records
to match.
You need to increase the likelihood that the records will match when they have similar address values.
Solution: You decrease the minimum matching score of the matching policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
We decrease the Min. matching score.
A data matching project consists of a computer-assisted process and an interactive process. The matching project
applies the matching rules in the matching policy to the data source to be assessed. This process assesses the
likelihood that any two rows are matches in a matching score. Only those records with a probability of a match greater
than a value set by the data steward in the matching policy will be considered a match. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/data-quality-services/data-matching


QUESTION 2
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to several servers. The package must meet
the following requirements:
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package imports daily transactions from several files into a SQL Server table
named Transaction. Each file corresponds to a different store and is imported in parallel with the other files. The data
flow
tasks use OLE DB destinations in fast load data access mode.
The number of daily transactions per store can be very large and is growing. The Transaction table does not have any
indexes.
You need to minimize the package execution time.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by day and store.
B. Create a clustered index on the Transaction table.
C. Run the package in Performance mode.
D. Increase the value of the Row per Batch property.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: * Data Access Mode ?This setting provides the \\’fast load\\’ option which internally uses a BULK INSERT
statement for uploading data into the destination table instead of a simple INSERT statement (for each single row) as in
the case for other options.
* BULK INSERT parameters include:
ROWS_PER_BATCH =rows_per_batch
Indicates the approximate number of rows of data in the data file. By default, all the data in the data file is sent to the
server as a single transaction, and the number of rows in the batch is unknown to the query optimizer. If you specify
ROWS_PER_BATCH (with a value > 0) the server uses this value to optimize the bulk- import operation. The value
specified for ROWS_PER_BATCH should approximately the same as the actual number of rows.

QUESTION 4
You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project.
The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a Microsoft Excel file.
Additional packages in the project must also access this file.
You need to define and reuse the Excel file connection in all project packages.
What should you do?
A. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it in the second package.
B. Set the RetainSameConnection property of the package Connection Manager to True.
C. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection Manager.
D. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. The data warehouse currently includes
the dimUser and dimRegion dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each
user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimRegion table contains information about sales regions.
The system is accessed by users from certain regions, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate
headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain regions. Some
users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple regions.
What should you do?
A. For each region, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the region.
B. Create a userRegion table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimRegion tables.
C. Add a region column to the dimUser table.
D. Partition the factSales table on the region column.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse hosted
on SQL Azure.
The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single
server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed
on a different schedule.
Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. Parent Package Variable
B. XML Configuration File
C. Environment Variable
D. .dtsConfig file
E. Registry Entry
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
You have a data quality project that focuses on the Products catalog for the company. The data includes a product
reference number.
The product reference should use the following format: Two letters followed by an asterisk and then four or five
numbers. An example of a valid number is XX*55522. Any reference number that does not conform to the format must
be rejected
during the data cleansing.
You need to add a Data Quality Services (DQS) domain rule in the Products domain.
Which rule should you use?
A. value matches pattern ZA*9876[5]
B. value matches pattern AZ[*]1234[5]
C. value matches regular expression AZ[*]1234[5]
D. value matches pattern [a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z]*[0-9][0-9] [0-9][0-9] [0-9]?
Correct Answer: A
For a pattern matching rule: Any letter (A…Z) can be used as a pattern for any letter; case insensitive Any digit (0…9)
can be used as a pattern for any digit Any special character, except a letter or a digit, can be used as a pattern for itself
Brackets, [], define optional matching
Example: ABC:0000 This rule implies that the data will contain three parts: any three letters followed by a colon (:),
which is again followed by any four digits.

 

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a data warehouse that stores information about products, sales, and orders for a manufacturing company.
The instance contains a database that has two tables named SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail.
SalesOrderHeader
has 500,000 rows and SalesOrderDetail has 3,000,000 rows.
Users report performance degradation when they run the following stored procedure:pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q8

You need to optimize performance.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

pass4itsure 70-767 exam question q8-1

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can specify the sample size as a percent. A 5% statistics sample size would be helpful.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-statistics

 

QUESTION 9
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the
data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in
each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all
dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server instance and a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse instance. You
move data from the on-premises database to the data warehouse once each day by using a SQL Server Integration
Services (SSIS) package.
You observe that the package no longer completes within the allotted time.
You need to determine which tasks are taking a long time to complete.
Solution: You alter the package to log the start and completion times for a task to a table in the on-premises SQL Server
instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC) feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert, update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. Audit
B. Merge Join
C. Merge
D. CDC Splitter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh758656.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. The model was developed to
provide consistent and validated snapshots of master data to the ETL processes by using subscription views. A new
model version has been created.
You need to ensure that the ETL processes retrieve the latest snapshot of master data.
What should you do?
A. Add a version flag to the last committed version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
B. Update the subscription views to use the last committed version.
C. Add a version flag to the new version, and update the subscription views to use this version flag.
D. Add a version flag to the new version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You create a script task in the package.
You need to dynamically set the file name of a connection object named File1 by using the script task
Which line of code should you add to the script task?
A. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).AcquireConnection(“C:\temp\temp.txt”)
B. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).Variables.Item[“FileName”].value = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
C. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).Properties.Item[“FileName”].Setvalue = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
D. Me.Dts.Connections(“File1”).ConnectionString = “C:\temp\temp.txt”
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco 700-505 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and

applications in real time?

A. Cisco Unity

B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module

C. Borderless Networks

D. WebEx meetings

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.webex.com/how-to/

 

QUESTION 2

Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on

demand? (Choose two.)

A. 3900 Series

B. 2900 Series

C. 2800 Series

D. 800 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps10598/data_sheet_c78-553913.html

 

QUESTION 3

Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions?

(Choose three.)

A. Guarantee reliability.

B. Improve workforce productivity.

C. Hire more staff.

D. Increase cash flow.

E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.

F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.

Correct Answer: BEF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 4

Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.

Which best practice can close the sale?

A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial

B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.

C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.

D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating

management.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 5

Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 3048

B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers

C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

E. Cisco Nexus 5000

F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/ps10265/ps12629/white_paper_c11-715347.html (Second

para)

 

QUESTION 6

Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)

A. Document, application, and desktop sharing

B. Available in 226 languages

C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings

D. Consistent, cross-platform experience

E. Third-party voice included

F. Per-user attention status indicator

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps10412/index.html

 

QUESTION 7

Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?

A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.

B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.

C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the

LAN or across the WAN.

D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/products/architecture/

 

QUESTION 8

Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)

A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery

B. 50 percent less time in application deployment

C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs

D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/GR/connect2013/pdfs/024_cisco_eugenioszervoudis.pdf (slide 10)

 

QUESTION 9

Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless

Network? (Choose two.)

A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.

B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases

C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve

D. All potential failures will be eliminated.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/education/BNArchitecture.pdf (page 10, third bullet)

 

QUESTION 10

Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)

A. validates business decisions

B. protects revenue streams

C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs

D. increases business resilience

E. enhances career paths

F. promotes independence

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 11

Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks?

(Choose two.)A. having networking experts on site

B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization

C. implementing data center or large campus deployments

D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff

E. moving applications to the cloud

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 12

Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and

promotions?

A. Web search

B. Cisco Partner Central web site

C. 1-877-GO-CISCO

D. Your local Cisco sales engineer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/index.html

 

QUESTION 13

Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)

A. drives growth and profitability

B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)

C. differentiates your business

D. provides access to promotions and incentives

E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification

F. partner program enrollment increases

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco Channel Partner Program provides many ways to differentiate your business and drive growth

and profitability for your company.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/pr11/index.html

 

QUESTION 14

Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?

A. SMARTnet

B. Small Business Support Service

C. SmartCare

D. Collaborative Professional Services

Correct Answer: CExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

The Cisco?Smart Care Service proactively verifies that the network is secure, reliable, and functioning

optimally so that you can improve your employee productivity and customer responsiveness and get the

most from your technology investments.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/services/programs/smartcare/downloads/Cisco_Smart_Care_

Partner_AAG_1111.pdf

 

QUESTION 15

Which statement about TrustSec is true?

A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.

B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services

to make context-aware access control decisions.

C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video

applications.

D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns170/ns896/ns1051/at_a_glance_c45- 653057.pdf (page

1, see Cisco TrustSec Secures borderless networks, first para, first sentence)

 

QUESTION 16

Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series?

(Choose two.)

A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.

B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.

C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.

D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps6032/ps6094/ps6120/at_a_glance_c45- 701635.pdf

 

QUESTION 17

Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize

business? (Choose two.)

A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint

B. Cisco MX200

C. Cisco VCS

D. Cisco Profile 42

Correct Answer: BD

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/products/webextelepresence/products.html

 

QUESTION 18

A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.

Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)

A. 8900 Series

B. 9900 Series

C. 3900 Series

D. 5900 Series

E. 6900 Series

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/voicesw/ps6788/ip_phones.html (Both are high performance solutions.

See the bulleted points underneath each solution)

 

QUESTION 19

Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA

security.

B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.

C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.

D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure

mobility client.

E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.

F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/routers/ps10616/white_paper_c11_556985_ps10538

_Products_White_Paper.html

 

QUESTION 20

Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?

A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.

B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.

C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.

D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns394/ns348/ns1070/aag_c22-594304.pdf

 

QUESTION 21

Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server

B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series

C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch

D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers

E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series

F. Cisco Nexus 5000

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns340/ns517/ns224/exps.pdf (page 2, the components,

second and third bullet)

 

QUESTION 22

Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical

details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?

A. Cisco Commerce Workspace

B. Competitive Portal

C. Quick Product Reference Guide

D. Cisco Discovery Service

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 23

Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose

three.)

A. RSTP8021w

B. Universal PoE

C. medianet

D. Flexible NetFlow

E. Multiprotocol Label Switching

F. Gigabit Ethernet

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 24

Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? (Choose four.)

A. eliminate redundancy

B. guarantee business outcomes

C. increase ROID. reduce independence

E. provide reliability

F. slow staff growth

G. lower costs

H. boost productivity

Correct Answer: CEGH

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 25

In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)

A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility

B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff

C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools

D. by providing a complex borderless solution

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 26

Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or

prospective customers? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Meraki roadshow

B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE

C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program

D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager

E. Free product trials

F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

 

QUESTION 27

Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)

A. IP telephones

B. Cisco Telepresence

C. Mobile device management

D. Switches

E. Security appliances

F. Servers

G. Storage

H. Wireless access points

Correct Answer: CDEH

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://meraki.cisco.com/ (see products)

 

QUESTION 28

Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?

A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook

B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.

C. It provides business hours global coverage

D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Source collection, analysis, and delivery of Security Intelligence content that includes services,

publications, VoDs, and podcasts are among the key resources offered through SIO. SIO provides insight

into threat trends and future outlook to protect the network through security best practices guidance and

mitigation techniques.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/web/services/news/ts_newsletter/tool/archives/201004.html

 

QUESTION 29

Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution?

(Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree

B. Smart Install

C. AutoSmartPorts

D. Smart CallHome

E. Solar-powered

F. Uninterruptable power

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Section: (none)

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps4324/at_a_glance_c45- 686803.pdf

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
What does the Warehouse Proxy agent do?
A. It provides dashboard visualization and reporting services for the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
B. It receives data collected by monitoring agents and moves it to the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
C. It analyzes and enriches the data that is collected by its monitoring agents and provides reports about the performance and capacity of systems.
D. It provides the ability to customize the length of time to save data and how often to aggregate granular data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What can an IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator do to help users view events when the Situation Event Console is constantly receiving too many alerts per hour?
A. Disable the Situation Event Console and clear alerts
B. Move the Situation Event Console to a separate server
C. Use IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus and send alerts to that console if entitled
D. The Situation Event Console is multi-threaded so add more processes to the process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which type of files are required for presenting workspaces, online help, and expert advice for the agent in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. audit and policy files
B. catalog and attribute files
C. help and presentation files
D. application configuration files
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of multiple Warehouse Proxy agents?
A. To get more accurate data from the Tivoli Data Warehouse
B. So that Summarization and Pruning can complete in its window
C. To ensure that Tivoli Monitoring agent data is written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. To allow multiple users to query the Tivoli Data Warehouse from the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 5
The Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server database contains which data?
A. Query, User, and Situation
B. Query, User, and Managed Systems
C. Query, User, and Workspace Definition
D. User, Situation, and Workspace Definition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about correlated situations?
A. They can only be used if referenced in a policy.
B. They only run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
C. They only run at Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers.
D. They run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server and Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
How are logically related attributes stored?
A. As Attribute Events
B. As Attribute Groups
C. As Attribute Policies
D. As Attribute Containers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which step is necessary to create a new query for data retrieval?
A. Click the Query Editor Icon on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) tool bar.
B. Click the Modify Query icon on the TEP tool bar.
C. Click Administration Mode and then select the Query Editor from the list.
D. Click Administration Mode, click List, and then select Query Editor from the list.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
How can a predefined workspace be restored to the original workspace?
A. Run tacmd restore workspace
B. File > Restore Original Workspace
C. Restart the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
D. It cannot be restored to the original workspace.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true regarding an export of monitoring data to a file after running a query?
A. No data can be excluded from the export.
B. Only rows can be excluded from the export.
C. Only columns can be excluded from the export.
D. Rows and columns can be excluded from the export.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
What is supplied with each monitoring agent?
A. Attribute Groups
B. Tivoli Data Warehouse reports
C. Universal Agent Data Providers
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus rules
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Where can a user defined query be used for data retrieval?
A. View only
B. Workspace only
C. View and Workspace only
D. View, Workspace, and Embedded Situations
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What is range partitioning?
A. An historical data collection feature that allows data to be filtered.
B. A feature used by the Agentless technology that allows better control of agent deployment.
C. A database data organization feature that can reduce feedback time for Summarization and Pruning agent performance.
D. A database data organization feature that can significantly improve pruning and query performance in large Tivoli Data Warehouse databases.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What should be used to show trends overtime among related attributes?
A. Bar chart
B. Plot chart
C. Topology view
D. Linear gauge chart
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
What are two ways to control all of the data streams that are available to a user in IBM Tivoli Monitoring? (Choose two.)A. Policies
B. Workflows
C. Workspaces
D. Pruning data
E. Logical views
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are three types of links at the Tivoli Enterprise Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Pure
B. Static
C. Relative
D. Absolute
E. Dynamic
F. Sampled
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation

QUESTION 17
What influences the data collection within the IBM Tivoli Monitoring environment?
A. Number of agents
B. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Portal Servers
C. Number of Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers
D. Number of Summarization and Pruning agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which permission must be set for a user to publish a workspace?
A. Administration Mode Eligible and Author Mode Eligible
B. Author Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
C. Workspace Administration Mode and Workspace Author Mode
D. Administration Mode Eligible and Workspace Administration Mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
What must be configured and distributed to the managed systems that data is being queried from, to enable the Specify Time Span for Query?
A. Historical Situation
B. Event Integration Facility
C. Historical Data Collection
D. The Until feature on a situation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Log in access to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client is controlled by user accounts that are defined where?
A. Dashboard Hub Services
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Authorization Policy Server
D. Operating System User Registry
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which two tasks must a user perform to create custom workspaces for a group? (Choose two.)
A. Create the custom workspaces and then save them when exiting.
B. Change the group settings on existing workspaces and rename them.
C. Log in as the group account and create the views in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS) for the team.
D. Custom workspaces can only be created in the TEPS if Dashboard Application Services Hub is installed.
E. Check that there is a group assigned in the TEPS for the team and limit the use of the workspaces to that group.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 22
When defining a user that will be responsible to ensure the proper backups are taken, which Tivoli Enterprise Portal Sewer user group would be assigned to the
user?
A. Operations
B. Management
C. Administrators
D. Support Teams
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
What is a characteristic of a pure event?
A. It does not close automatically by default.
B. It has a unique randomized control number.
C. It links with enterprise workspace automatically.
D. It returns multiple rows for historical data collection.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
What are two functions defined within a policy? (Choose two.)
A. Have the policy start or stop policies
B. Have the policy start or stop situations
C. Have the policy write the attributes to the agent log
D. Have the policy automatically acknowledge the situation that triggered the event
E. Have the attribute record that triggered the policy write a historical record of the specific data
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 25
With a policy there are many features and functions available to create a workflow type process when a given situation becomes true. Which feature is available?
A. Start/Stop SNMP
B. Start/Stop a Policy
C. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent
D. Start/Stop an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
How can you tell if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. The Navigator item will be grey.
B. The situation icon will appear red for all situations when true.
C. The situation icon will always appear beside the Navigator item.
D. The Navigator item will appear when the situation becomes true.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
What does the Krarlofl program do?
A. It converts short-term history files to delimited flat files.
B. It is used to dynamically change the tracing options for an agent.
C. It is used transfer a file from a remote managed system to a local destination.
D. It is used to generate the auto start scripts on UNIX and Linux based on the definitions in kcirunas.cfg.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
No data is being written to the Tivoli Data Warehouse (TDW), and all the Warehouse Prows’ agents are online with a normal status. What should be checked?
A. Verify the database is supported.
B. Verify the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server user ID is logged in to the TDW.
C. Verify the Summarization and Pruning agent is running according to its schedule.
D. Verify the database User ID the Warehouse Prows’ agent is using has sufficient database privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNi bus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
What is monitored by the Summarization and Pruning agent (SPA)?
A. The run time and completion of the SPA
B. The connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. The size of the tables being summarized and pruned
D. Availability of space on the disk where the Tivoli Data Warehouse is located
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which type of diagram is used to visualize historical data?
A. Pie Chart
B. Plot Chart
C. Table View
D. Graphic View
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which group is indicated by a in front of some groups in the Object Group editor?
A. Default
B. Unused
C. Ali Groups
D. Managed System
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
What is a workspace as it relates to IBM Tivoli Monitoring?
A. A screen in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) to display data.
B. A policy in the TEP for displaying logical views.
C. A screen that displays only temporary historical data.
D. A policy in the TEP for displaying information for physical views.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
What must occur to publish a workspace?
A. Have Workspace Author Mode and click the Save icon
B. Click the Create New Workspace icon, create the Workspace, and then click the Save icon
C. Have Workspace Administration, click the Properties icon, and then click the Apply Button
D. Click the Save icon and then contact an administrator and ask them to publish the new workspace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
When setting a time span to display, what would cause Null to be displayed as the value of a table cell or chart point?
A. The IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) license key is invalid.
B. The ITM encryption key is invalid.
C. The Tivoli Data Warehouse agent is not running.
D. No data was stored in the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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