Best CCNA Exam Solutions to Download 2017 Latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Study Guide[Video]

The CCNA ICND2 Study Guide, 3rd Edition covers 100 percent of all exam 200-105 dumps objectives. Leading networking authority Todd Lammle provides detailed explanations and clear instruction on IP data networks, switching and routing technologies, IPv4 and IPV6 addressing, troubleshooting, security, and more. Dozens of hands-on labs help you gain experience with important tasks, and expert examples and insights drawn from thirty years of networking bring real-world perspective to essential CCNA skills.

Exam Code: 200-105 
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 204
Exam Information:

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Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on a separate computer? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Attachment Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service

Correct Answer: AE



Which status in BlackBerry Desktop Redirector indicates that redirection is functioning? (Choose one.)
A. Verifying forwarding address
B. Enabled
C. Running
D. Started
E. On

Correct Answer: C



In which two of the following locations would a system administrator set an enterprise activation password? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device
B. The BlackBerry device user email clientThe BlackBerry device user? email client
C. The BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
D. The BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry Provisioning System
Correct Answer: CD



When installing applications through BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what type of file should the application loader tool be looking for? (Choose one.)
A. .exe file
B. .arp file
C. .xml file
D. .alx file
E. .pgp file

Correct Answer: D

Which two of the following will clear the BlackBerry device calendar database for a user who is connecting to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. Using Advanced Options in the BlackBerry Desktop Manager backup and restore tool
B. Deleting the Desktop [CICAL] service book
C. Performing a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
D. Accessing Calendar > Options and typing RSET
E. Synchronizing with the email client

Correct Answer: AD


Which three of the following are valid synchronization translators in BlackBerry Desktop Manager 4.6?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Sage ACT!
C. ASCII Importer/Exporter
D. Gmail
E. Yahoo!

Correct Answer: ACE  200-105 dumps



When attempting to synchronize ACT! using BlackBerry Desktop Manager version 4.6, a BlackBerry device user repeatedly receives an error during the synchronization process. What is the cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The appropriate connector is not installed
B. ACT! is not a supported application for synchronization
C. The wrong version of BlackBerry Desktop Manager was installed
D. No Internet connection is present
E. The computer does not have a required Windows service pack installed for this operation

Correct Answer: B



The following error message appears on a BlackBerry device: Device Error 507 What could be the cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. An unsupported application has been installed
B. The BlackBerry device battery needs to be charged
C. The BlackBerry device is in an area with insufficient network coverage
D. There are currently no operating systems or applications installed
E. The BlackBerry device has been removed from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: D



Which of the following actions does the ill?command that can be sent from the BlackBerry Administration Service perform? (Choose one.)
A. Reset the password and disable the SIM card
B. Disable the SIM card and turn off the radio
C. Reset password and lock the BlackBerry device
D. Nuke BlackBerry device
E. Delete all BlackBerry device data and disable BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: E



In BlackBerry Desktop Manager, the title bar continually shows a status of Disconnected after connecting the BlackBerry device to the computer. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would help resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a clean install of the BlackBerry Device Software
B. Perform a hard reset of the BlackBerry device
C. Uninstall previous installations of BlackBerry Device Software
D. Ensure Power Management options are turned off for the USB Root Hubs on the computer
E. Ensure no other USB devices are connected to the computer

Correct Answer: BD



Which two of the following are methods for activating a BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. On the BlackBerry device, the browser is launched and the user navigates to the organization wireless enterprise activation web page
B. The system administrator connects the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using a USB cable
C. The BlackBerry device user logs in to a mail client and sends an email message to the “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 14 BlackBerry BCP-221 Exam BlackBerry Enterprise Server with the subject Activation
D. Using a USB cable, the BlackBerry device is connected to the user workstation on the organizations network, and BlackBerry Desktop

Correct Answer: BD



Which two of the following audio codec are supported by the Media application on BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Device Software 4.5 or higher? (Choose two.)
A. Ogg Vorbis
B. MP3
D. Real Audio
E. TwinVQ
Correct Answer: BC



Which three of the following notification options are available in the Profiles application? (Choose three.)
A. Alert delay
B. Volume
C. Out of holster options
D. Number of vibrations
E. Outcall muting

Correct Answer: BCD

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New Updated Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-996 PDF DCUFD: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric

The 642-996 pdf provide anyone almost everything you simply must take ones Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFD) v5.0 Cisco Test questions. The particular Computer Technology Industry Association specifics are reviewed as well as that is generated by Professional Documentation Specialists who’re continually utilizing sector expertise to generate correct, and realistic. Our Product or service will help you go away examination with your try, and as well save your valuable time.

Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Updated: Apr 02, 2017
Q&As: 178

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the 642-996 pdf. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Describe the Design Methodology 6%
1.1 Describe developing business trends
1.2 Identify business requirements driving the Data Center design
1.3 Determine the requirements needed to create a Data Center solution
1.4 Describe the tools/process to characterize an existing Data Center
1.5 Describe the top down approach to network design

2.0 Describe Data Center Structure and Modularity 7%
2.1 Describe network architectures for the Data Center
2.1.a LAN
2.1.b SAN
2.2 Describe the Modular Approach in Network Design
2.3 Describe the data center core layer
2.4 Describe the data center aggregation layer
2.5 Describe the data center access layer
2.6 Identify Design Considerations for connectivity between Data Centers
2.7 Identify the environments that use a Cisco data center virtualization solution
2.8 Identify the migration plan from existing to new infrastructure

642-996 pdf

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Question No : 11 When designing a data center environment with ECMP and IP routing between the data
center network segments, which design would be the most suitable?
A. Layer 3 data center core
B. Layer 3 data center core with Layer 2 extension
C. Layer 2 data center core
D. Layer 2 data center core with Layer 3 extension
Answer: A


Question No : 12 What is one required component to run FCoE?
A. iSCSI gateway
B. Fibre Channel adapter
D. Converged network adaptors
Answer: D


Question No : 13 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate
platforms are capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
C. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade
Answer: A,B,C


Question No : 14 Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?
A. Cisco Adapter FEX is only supported on vSwitch.
B. Cisco Adapter FEX enables the server adapter to be logically partitioned into multiple
C. Cisco Adapter FEX does not provide architectural flexibility.
D. Cisco Adapter FEX increases the number of cables in the data center.
Answer: B


642-996 pdf Question No : 15  The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and
on the data plane. What is the solution to this problem?
Answer: B


Question No : 16 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B



Question No : 17  Which three options does Cisco Data Mobility Manager provide? (Choose three.)
A. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during low traffic hours or minimize
B. brings the need for multiple migration solutions
C. moves from a smaller logical unit number to a larger LUN
D. manages all capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
E. manages all capabilities from CLI
F. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during high traffic hours or maximize
G. manages some capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
Answer: A,C,D


Question No : 18  Which three Cisco technologies or solutions are used during the virtualization design into
the data center access layer? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V switch
B. Cisco UCS pass-through switching with VM-FEX
C. Cisco Virtual Services Appliance
D. Cisco Adapter-FEX when using Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
E. Cisco Distributed Virtual Switch
F. Fibre Channel switch mode
Answer: A,B,D


Question No : 19  Which protocol is required in order for FabricPath to support switches or hosts that dual
attach through classical Ethernet?
B. vPC
Answer: B
Question No : 20  Which type of 40 Gigabit Ethernet optics should be used for interconnect when the number
of multimode fiber strands used should be kept as low as possible?
B. 40GBASE-LR4-Lite
Answer: C


642-996 pdf Question No : 21 Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?

A. NFS v4
B. HyperTransport
C. AoE
Answer: F

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Guaranteed Full Microsoft Study Guide – Pass 70-410 PDF and Vce in the Latest Version

These “skills measured” for the 70-410 pdf are taken straight from Microsoft’s website. The blue text I have included to clarify (or at least I hope) some of the exam objectives. I am by no means an expert… yet… but I am pretty familiar with previous versions of Windows Server. So therefore, keep in mind these are just 70-410 exam notes I have jotted down during my study. Hope it helps and Good Luck!!!

70-410 PDF

Skills Measured for 70-410 Exam

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
Updated on: Feb 17, 2017
Exam Information


Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers

70-410 PDF

  • Configure servers
  • Configure local storage

Configure server roles and features (15–20%)

  • Configure file and share access
  • Configure print and document services
  • Configure servers for remote management

Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)

  • Create and configure virtual machine settings
  • Create and configure virtual machine storage
  • reate and configure virtual networks

Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)

  • Configure IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Deploy and configure Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service
  • Deploy and configure DNS service

Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)

  • Install domain controllers
  • Create and manage Active Directory users and computers
  • Create and manage Active Directory groups and organizational units (OUs)

Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

  • Create Group Policy objects (GPOs)
  • Configure security policies
  • Configure application restriction policies
  • Configure Windows Firewall

You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to
create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?

70-410 PDF

A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as
shown in the following table.

70-410 PDF

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B



70-410 PDF

Some of the objectives in this book do require, however, a physical server. Configuring 70-411 exam for example is pretty much dependent on a stand-alone machine unless you want to create Virtualmachineception.

Personally I’m going to stick together a personal rack at some point with the necessary 70-411 dumps hardware at home and I’m sure if you’re interested in becoming a Systems Specialist of any kind, the thought has crossed your mind as well.

Acquisition of materials is worth 1% towards completion of certification.

The reason I chose to to pursue a track focusing on Server 2012 R2 is because it’s my favorite Microsoft server OS, mostly because I enjoy 70-411 vce.  At one point, I didn’t see much value in pursuing it any further. I still have the book, use it for reference at work because I still have a  70-411 pdf  system in production but all new servers I have deployed in the past 6 months.

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

NO.3 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D  200-101 dumps


NO.5 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />

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You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: B Explanation

DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

D: Start-OBRegistration Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect: Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T
Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference: 300-207 dumps
This example starts a backup job using a policy.

Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

Reference: Start-OBBackup
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A Explanation

A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

Incorrect: Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom
Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot
Configuration Data file is missing some required information.

File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE.
You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.

Error code 0x0000034 while booting. Resolution:
Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.

Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.

Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.

Click Repair your computer.

Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.

In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.

Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR
and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT
and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.

Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is backed up by using Windows Server Backup. The backup configuration is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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Which statement best describes Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
A. WEP is a moderately secure firewall for wireless devices.
B. WEP optimizes performance of 802.11 devices over distances, so they perform as well as their wired equivalents.
C. WEP represents the first attempt at designing an algorithm to protect wireless communication from eavesdropping.
D. WEP allows wireless access point administrators to require user names and passwords of users who want to connect to the wireless access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Which two (2) actions might a rootkit perform?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Monitor disk activity on the root volume.
B. Install security tools in root’s home directory.
C. Provide remote access to a computer by opening ports.
D. Hide its presence by installing modified versions of system commands
E. Provide a set of tools that allow the system administrator to monitor security events.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
________ is a command-line tool that displays the headers of packets seen by a computer’s network interface card.
A. arp
B. ping
C. netstat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
Which statement about SSH tunneling is FALSE?
A. SSH tunnels can support the PPP protocol.
B. SSH tunnels secure all IP traffic, including UDP and TCP.
C. SSH tunnels secure otherwise non-secure traffic, such as POP and AFP.
D. Forwarding port 1023 and below requires root privileges for the initial receiving port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Why might you prefer WPA Enterprise over WPA Personal?
A. You need 128-bit encryption.
B. You do not want to manage a RADIUS server.
C. You require more connections than WPA Personal allows
D. The security implications of WPA Personal’s shared key are not acceptable.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Which two (2) authentication mechanisms are available to SSH users?
(Choose TWO.)
A. public/private key pair
B. shared ssh_config files
C. user name and password
D. NTLM (NT LAN Manager)
E. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
What does Stealth Mode on the Mac OS X Firewall do?
A. It disables the sending of denials to blocked packets.
B. It disables responses to all incoming connection attempts
C. It creates a NAT gateway to hide the true IP address of the computer.
D. It enables responses only to connection attempts from computers that are in the allowed computer list.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
If you see the password dialog shown above, which statement below MUST be true?
A. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry.
B. Mail needs to search a keychain for a relevant entry.
C. Mail is preparing to change the ACL for the keychain entry.
D. Mail has found a relevant keychain entry, but it was not accepted by the server.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Which two (2) steps to obtain a certificate from a third-party are essential for signing email?
(Choose TWO.)
A. Create a key pair.
B. Change the key size to 128 bits.
C. Store a key pair in your login keychain.
D. Generate a CSR (Certificate Signing Request).
E. Use Certificate Assistant to generate a CA (Certificate Authority).

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
The Common Data Security Architecture (CDSA) is ________.
A. a cryptographic services toolkit
B. a file system security infrastructure
C. a secure authentication method built into LDAP
D. a modular approach to networking and Internet services

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
70-532 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
70-532 Dumps Tests Detail:Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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This 70-532 vce measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

NO.1 You need to configure diagnostics for the Azure solution. Which two types of diagnostic data should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Performance counters
B. Infrastructure logs
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D. Event logs
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F. Application logs
Answer: D,E


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WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city. You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that
the user selects in the WeatherSummary application. What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
Answer: B  400-101 vce


You are developing an Azure cloud service for a company. The cloud service monitors a queue for incoming messages and then processes invoices based on the contents of these messages. Some messages are formed incorrectly and cause exceptions. There is no time limit for how long the service takes to process an individual message. All messages must be processed at least once by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages must not be processed more than twice by using the ProcessMessage method. Messages that fail normal processing must be processed by using the ProcessPoisonMessage method. You need to configure message processing. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.

You use the storage client library to develop an application that manages Azure table storage data. The application reports error codes when it saves data.
You must use a custom retry policy to handle the error codes. The custom retry policy must meet the following requirements:
– Retry when a conflict error code is encountered.
– Retry when a storage exception is encountered.
– Retry until the maximum number of retry attempts is reached.
You create the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only. You need to insert code at line 14 to implement the retry policy.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-532 pdf ? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

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Exam A
In Mail, where do you set email rules?
A. Mail/Preferences/
B. Mail/Preferences/Rules
C. Mail/Options/Rules
D. Mail/Rules
E. Mail/Signatures & Rules

Correct Answer: B
What can you see about your drives and partitions using Apple System Profiler?
A. Number and size of partitions
B. Operating System
C. Users
D. root password
E. Number of folders

Correct Answer: A
When opening a new Terminal window, what is the default location?
A. /login
B. /usr
C. /usr/bin
D. /usr/login/bin
E. /usr/bin/login

Correct Answer: E
What application was very dramatically changed with the release of Jaguar to include things like mapping, flight search information and language translations?
A. Finder
B. Help
C. AppleCare
D. Sherlock
E. AppleWorks
Correct Answer: D   200-120 exam

What Jaguar tool do you need to coordinate all the information on your iPod or PDA with your Mac?
A. iMatch
B. iSync
C. iPod sync
D. iTools
E. .mac
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

In Server Settings, under the Network tab, how do you disable a NetBoot disk image?
A. Click DHCP/NetBoot and pick Configure DHCP/NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
B. Click DHCP/NetBoot and click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
C. Click DHCP/NetBoot then pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
D. Click NetBoot then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox
E. Click NetBoot and pick Configure NetBoot, then click the image tab, pick the disk image and uncheck the Enable checkbox

Correct Answer: A
What two applications can you use to find your Macintosh’s MAC address?
A. Network Utility
B. System Preferences
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Directory Setup
E. Apple System Profiler

Correct Answer: AE

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Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  400-101 vce
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

200-120 exam
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

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What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets and
A. O [110/13] via, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O [110/13] via, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O [110/1] via, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O [110/3] via, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O [110/13] via, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O [110/13] via, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O [110/13] via, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O [110/3] via, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O [110/3] via, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC

200-101 exam
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the LAN be forwarded to
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37

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